a postoperative client has a prescription for ketorolac 30mg iv q6h which response demonstrates the medication therapeutic levels has been achieved
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Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. A postoperative client has a prescription for ketorolac 30mg IV q6h. Which response demonstrates that therapeutic levels of the medication have been achieved?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale. Ketorolac is an NSAID prescribed for pain relief. Monitoring pain levels is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication. Pain assessment helps determine if the medication is providing adequate pain relief, indicating that therapeutic levels have been achieved.

2. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by thinning the blood. One of the potential side effects of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, blood in the urine or stool, or prolonged bleeding from cuts or gums. Prompt recognition and management of bleeding are essential to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as weight gain, headache, and dizziness are not common side effects of warfarin. Monitoring for bleeding is a priority due to the anticoagulant properties of warfarin.

3. A home health care nurse observes that a client with Parkinson's syndrome is experiencing increased tremors and difficulty in movement. What should the nurse do in response to this finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with Parkinson's syndrome experiencing increased tremors and movement difficulty, arranging a medical evaluation is crucial to adjust the medication dose. This proactive approach helps in managing the symptoms effectively. Reporting the finding to the healthcare provider may delay necessary adjustments in treatment. Scheduling a return home visit in 2 weeks may not address the immediate need for medication adjustment. Explaining that the progression is expected without taking action does not address the client's worsening symptoms.

4. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.

5. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works to prevent blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from the gums. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while bruising and other symptoms can occur as a result of bleeding, they are not the primary side effect to monitor for with clopidogrel. Nausea and headache are less commonly associated with clopidogrel use compared to bleeding.

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