Nursing Elites

1. A postoperative client has a prescription for ketorolac 30mg IV q6h. Which response demonstrates that therapeutic levels of the medication have been achieved?

• A. Observe wound drainage for a change in appearance
• B. Assess the client's calves for inflammation
• C. Perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale
• D. Measure the client's intake and output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale. Ketorolac is an NSAID prescribed for pain relief. Monitoring pain levels is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication. Pain assessment helps determine if the medication is providing adequate pain relief, indicating that therapeutic levels have been achieved.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia as a potential side effect. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, hence monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications related to hypokalemia.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed saxagliptin. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Report any signs of heart failure to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed saxagliptin, it is crucial to instruct them to report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider. Saxagliptin can lead to pancreatitis as a side effect, making it essential for clients to be vigilant about recognizing and reporting any related symptoms promptly for timely intervention and management. Choice B is incorrect because saxagliptin can be taken with or without meals. Choice C is not specifically associated with saxagliptin use. Choice D is incorrect as heart failure is not a common side effect of saxagliptin.

4. An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with iron supplements, which information should the nurse include in the discharge?

• A. Take the tablet with a daily multivitamin
• B. Crush the tablet and mix it with pudding
• C. Bedtime is the best time to take the tablet
• D. Wait 2 hours after meals to take the tablet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to wait 2 hours after meals before taking the iron tablet. This is important to ensure better absorption and efficacy of the iron supplement. Taking the tablet with a daily multivitamin (Choice A) may interfere with iron absorption due to interactions with other minerals. Crushing the tablet and mixing it with pudding (Choice B) can alter the effectiveness of the medication. While bedtime (Choice C) may be convenient, waiting after meals is crucial for optimal iron absorption.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Liver toxicity
• B. Skin rash
• C. Hair loss
• D. Abdominal pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver toxicity. Methotrexate is known to cause liver toxicity, making regular monitoring of liver function essential. Monitoring liver function tests helps detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for appropriate interventions to be implemented promptly.

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