Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding as rivaroxaban increases the risk of bleeding. Common adverse effects of rivaroxaban include bleeding events, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. It is crucial for the nurse to assess for these signs to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because rivaroxaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. Monitoring for bleeding is essential due to the anticoagulant properties of rivaroxaban.

2. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Insomnia
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Venlafaxine, a medication used for generalized anxiety disorder, can commonly cause nausea as a side effect. It is essential for clients to be aware of this potential side effect and advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, insomnia, and headache are less commonly associated side effects of venlafaxine compared to nausea.

3. A female client who started chemotherapy three days ago for cancer of the breast calls the clinic reporting that she is so upset she cannot sleep. The client has several PRN medications available. Which drug should the nurse instruct her to take?

• A. Ondansetron 8mgPO no
• B. Lorazepam 2mg PO bedtime
• C. Oxycodone, acetylsalicylic acid one tablet q4 hours PRN
• D. Acetaminophen, diphenhydramine 2 capsules bedtime

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen and diphenhydramine help with sleep without severe side effects.

4. A client is prescribed atorvastatin. The practical nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Muscle pain and weakness
• B. Headache
• C. Hepatotoxicity
• D. Gastrointestinal bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle pain and weakness. Atorvastatin is known to potentially cause muscle pain and weakness, which could indicate muscle damage or rhabdomyolysis. This adverse effect should be closely monitored by the practical nurse to ensure early detection and appropriate management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with atorvastatin use. Headache is a less common side effect, hepatotoxicity is rare but serious, and gastrointestinal bleeding is not a common adverse effect of atorvastatin.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed sitagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Pancreatitis
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sitagliptin, a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor used in type 2 diabetes, has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. While hypoglycemia is a potential adverse effect of some diabetes medications, it is less common with sitagliptin. Hyperglycemia is the condition being treated and is not an expected adverse effect of sitagliptin.

Similar Questions