Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding as rivaroxaban increases the risk of bleeding. Common adverse effects of rivaroxaban include bleeding events, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. It is crucial for the nurse to assess for these signs to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because rivaroxaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. Monitoring for bleeding is essential due to the anticoagulant properties of rivaroxaban.

2. A female client who started chemotherapy three days ago for cancer of the breast calls the clinic reporting that she is so upset she cannot sleep. The client has several PRN medications available. Which drug should the nurse instruct her to take?

• A. Ondansetron 8mgPO no
• B. Lorazepam 2mg PO bedtime
• C. Oxycodone, acetylsalicylic acid one tablet q4 hours PRN
• D. Acetaminophen, diphenhydramine 2 capsules bedtime

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen and diphenhydramine help with sleep without severe side effects.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate, the nurse should monitor for hypercalcemia as a potential side effect. Sevelamer carbonate can bind to dietary calcium and impair its absorption, potentially leading to elevated calcium levels in the blood. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to detect and manage hypercalcemia promptly. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is incorrect because sevelamer carbonate's action is more likely to cause elevated calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are related to potassium levels and are not typically associated with sevelamer carbonate use.

4. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed salmeterol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Insomnia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is dry mouth. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta agonist used in COPD, can lead to dry mouth as a common side effect. Nurses should monitor for this side effect and advise clients to report it if it becomes bothersome.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed canagliflozin. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Report any signs of urinary tract infection.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Avoid taking this medication with grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the client's teaching plan is to report any signs of urinary tract infection. Canagliflozin, a medication used in diabetes mellitus type 2, can increase the risk of urinary tract infections. Instructing the client to report any signs of infection is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take canagliflozin with meals, avoid alcohol, or restrict grapefruit juice consumption while on this medication.

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