Nursing Elites

1. A healthy 68-year-old client asks the practical nurse (PN) whether they should take the pneumococcal vaccine. Which statement should the PN offer to the client that provides the most accurate information about this vaccine?

• A. The vaccine is given annually before the flu season to those older than 50 years.
• B. The immunization is recommended for children younger than 2 years old and all adults 65 years or older.
• C. The vaccine is for all ages and is given primarily to those traveling overseas to areas of infection.
• D. The vaccine will prevent the occurrence of pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is usually recommended that children younger than 2 years old and adults 65 years or older get vaccinated against pneumococcal disease. This is because these age groups are more susceptible to severe complications from the infection. While the vaccine may be recommended for certain individuals with specific medical conditions at any age, the primary target groups are as mentioned in option B. Option A is incorrect as the pneumococcal vaccine is not given annually like the flu vaccine. Option C is incorrect because the vaccine is not primarily for travelers but for certain age groups and individuals with medical conditions at risk. Option D is incorrect as the vaccine's duration of protection can vary, and it is not guaranteed to prevent pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.

2. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of metaproterenol for how do you know it's been effective?

• A. Increased heart rate and blood pressure
• B. Decreased white blood cell count
• C. Decreased wheezing upon auscultation
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The effectiveness of metaproterenol, a bronchodilator, is assessed by a decrease in wheezing upon auscultation. Wheezing indicates airway constriction, and a reduction in wheezing signifies improved airflow and bronchodilation due to the medication's action. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the expected outcome of metaproterenol therapy.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed lanthanum carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lanthanum carbonate is prescribed in chronic kidney disease to bind dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract. This action can lead to decreased phosphorus absorption and potential hypercalcemia due to the increased serum calcium levels. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia, such as confusion, fatigue, and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lanthanum carbonate's mechanism of action does not lead to hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium. Which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth and increased thirst
• C. Tremors and polyuria
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client taking lithium, dry mouth and increased thirst are indicators of potential adverse effects. Lithium can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, causing polyuria and subsequent increased thirst due to impaired water reabsorption in the kidneys. Tremors can also be a sign of lithium toxicity. Monitoring and recognizing these symptoms are crucial in managing lithium therapy and preventing further complications.

5. A client with a history of angina is prescribed amlodipine. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

• A. Headache
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral edema as an adverse effect. This is due to its vasodilation effects on blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to assess the client's response to amlodipine and ensure timely intervention if needed.

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