Nursing Elites

1. A healthy 68-year-old client asks the practical nurse (PN) whether they should take the pneumococcal vaccine. Which statement should the PN offer to the client that provides the most accurate information about this vaccine?

• A. The vaccine is given annually before the flu season to those older than 50 years.
• B. The immunization is recommended for children younger than 2 years old and all adults 65 years or older.
• C. The vaccine is for all ages and is given primarily to those traveling overseas to areas of infection.
• D. The vaccine will prevent the occurrence of pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is usually recommended that children younger than 2 years old and adults 65 years or older get vaccinated against pneumococcal disease. This is because these age groups are more susceptible to severe complications from the infection. While the vaccine may be recommended for certain individuals with specific medical conditions at any age, the primary target groups are as mentioned in option B. Option A is incorrect as the pneumococcal vaccine is not given annually like the flu vaccine. Option C is incorrect because the vaccine is not primarily for travelers but for certain age groups and individuals with medical conditions at risk. Option D is incorrect as the vaccine's duration of protection can vary, and it is not guaranteed to prevent pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed semaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Pancreatitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Semaglutide, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes, is known to cause nausea as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for gastrointestinal symptoms, including nausea, after initiating treatment with semaglutide. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are common concerns in diabetes management, they are not the primary adverse effects associated with semaglutide. Pancreatitis is a serious but rare adverse effect of GLP-1 receptor agonists like semaglutide, which should also be monitored for, but nausea is a more common and immediate concern.

3. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed valproate. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Hair loss
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Valproate is known to cause weight gain as a common adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's weight regularly while on this medication to detect and address any changes that may occur.

4. A female client who started chemotherapy three days ago for cancer of the breast calls the clinic reporting that she is so upset she cannot sleep. The client has several PRN medications available. Which drug should the nurse instruct her to take?

• A. Ondansetron 8mgPO no
• B. Lorazepam 2mg PO bedtime
• C. Oxycodone, acetylsalicylic acid one tablet q4 hours PRN
• D. Acetaminophen, diphenhydramine 2 capsules bedtime

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen and diphenhydramine help with sleep without severe side effects.

5. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Weight gain
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects, especially bleeding. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. One of the major risks associated with clopidogrel is an increased tendency to bleed. Therefore, monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in stool or urine, or prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, is crucial to ensure patient safety and early intervention if needed.

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