Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with a sinus infection is prescribed ampicillin sodium. The practical nurse (PN) should instruct the client to notify the healthcare provider immediately if which symptom occurs?

• A. Rash
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A - Rash. Rash is the most common adverse side effect of all generations of penicillin, indicating an allergy to the medication. An allergic reaction could lead to anaphylactic shock, a severe and potentially life-threatening emergency. It is crucial for the client to inform the healthcare provider promptly if a rash develops after taking ampicillin sodium.

2. Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving aspirin 600mg po QID?

• A. Monitor temperature q4h
• B. Use 10-point pain scale to assess pain
• C. Assess for dyspepsia and nausea
• D. Check stool for occult blood

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the stool for occult blood when caring for a client receiving aspirin 600mg po QID. Aspirin can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, and checking for occult blood in the stool is essential to monitor for this serious adverse effect. Monitoring temperature, assessing pain, and checking for dyspepsia and nausea are important interventions but not as critical as monitoring for gastrointestinal bleeding when a client is receiving aspirin.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate, the nurse must monitor for hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia. Calcium acetate can increase calcium levels in the blood, leading to hypercalcemia. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include fatigue, confusion, constipation, and muscle weakness. Regular monitoring of calcium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with elevated calcium levels.

4. When a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects. The correct answer is dry mouth. Ipratropium can cause dry mouth as a common side effect due to its anticholinergic effects. This side effect can impact the patient's oral health and comfort, requiring close monitoring and appropriate interventions.

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Insomnia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic medication commonly used in COPD. One of the most common side effects of anticholinergics is dry mouth due to the inhibition of salivary gland function. Tachycardia (Choice B) is not a typical side effect of ipratropium. Insomnia (Choice C) is also not a common side effect of this medication. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not associated with ipratropium use. Therefore, the correct side effect to monitor for in a patient prescribed ipratropium is dry mouth.

5. The practical nurse administered carbidopa-levodopa to a client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which outcome by the client would indicate a therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Lessening of tremors
• C. Increased salivation
• D. Increased attention span

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lessening of tremors. Carbidopa-levodopa increases the amount of levodopa to the CNS, providing more dopamine to the brain. Increased dopamine levels help alleviate Parkinson's symptoms such as tremors, involuntary movements, and gait abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as carbidopa-levodopa is not expected to have a direct effect on blood pressure, salivation, or attention span in the context of treating Parkinson's disease.

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