HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023
1. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed carvedilol, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, a potential side effect of this medication. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can slow down the heart rate, so monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any adverse effects on the client's cardiovascular system. Tachycardia (Choice B) is less likely to occur with carvedilol since it primarily works to reduce heart rate. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperglycemia (Choice D) are not common side effects associated with carvedilol.
2. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed epoetin alfa. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin alfa can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect because it stimulates increased red blood cell production. This can result in elevated blood pressure levels, requiring careful monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications. Choice B, hypotension, is incorrect because epoetin alfa is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension. Choice C, hyperglycemia, and Choice D, tachycardia, are also incorrect as they are not commonly associated with the use of epoetin alfa.
3. A client with asthma is prescribed fluticasone. The nurse should instruct the client to use this medication at which time?
- A. During an asthma attack
- B. Twice a day
- C. Once a day
- D. At night before bed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Fluticasone is a maintenance medication for asthma aimed at controlling symptoms. It should be taken once a day on a regular basis to provide ongoing relief and prevent asthma symptoms, rather than being used to treat acute asthma attacks. Therefore, the correct answer is to use it once a day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because using fluticasone during an asthma attack, twice a day, or only at night before bed does not align with the medication's purpose of being a daily maintenance therapy.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed ferric citrate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Nausea
- D. Hyperphosphatemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed ferric citrate, the nurse should monitor for constipation as a potential side effect. Ferric citrate can lead to constipation due to its effects on the gastrointestinal system, causing a decrease in bowel movements. It is essential for the nurse to assess and manage constipation promptly to prevent complications and ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Monitoring bowel movements, providing adequate hydration, and recommending dietary interventions can help alleviate constipation in clients taking ferric citrate. Diarrhea, nausea, and hyperphosphatemia are not typically associated with the use of ferric citrate in clients with chronic kidney disease.
5. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed diazepam. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Diazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a potential side effect. It is important for clients taking diazepam to be cautious about activities that require alertness, such as driving, due to the risk of drowsiness associated with this medication. Choice B, dry mouth, is not typically associated with diazepam use. Choice C, nausea, is less common as a side effect of diazepam compared to drowsiness. Choice D, headache, is also less common and typically not a significant side effect of diazepam.
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