Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed carvedilol, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, a potential side effect of this medication. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can slow down the heart rate, so monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any adverse effects on the client's cardiovascular system. Tachycardia (Choice B) is less likely to occur with carvedilol since it primarily works to reduce heart rate. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperglycemia (Choice D) are not common side effects associated with carvedilol.

2. A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. What potential adverse effect should the practical nurse (PN) instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Persistent cough
• B. Constipation
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Dry skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. This cough is distinctive and different from other causes of cough. It is essential for the client to be aware of this potential side effect as it can indicate a serious issue. Instructing the client to monitor for a persistent cough and report it to the healthcare provider promptly is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as constipation, increased appetite, and dry skin are not commonly associated with lisinopril use for hypertension. Therefore, the practical nurse should focus on educating the client about monitoring and reporting a persistent cough.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Headache
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia due to its effect on slowing down the heart rate, which can be dangerous in a client with atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because digoxin is not known to cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

4. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis?

• A. Rotate injection sites to prevent irritation.
• B. Take this medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Avoid sunlight exposure while on this medication.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of any signs of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed etanercept is to rotate injection sites to prevent irritation and ensure proper absorption. Changing sites will help prevent skin irritation and ensure that the medication is absorbed effectively. This practice also reduces the risk of injection site reactions and discomfort. It is essential to follow this instruction to promote optimal medication delivery and minimize adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because etanercept can be taken with or without food, and it is not specifically indicated to be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific association between etanercept and sunlight exposure. Choice D is incorrect because while it is important to notify the healthcare provider of signs of infection, this is not the primary instruction related to the administration of etanercept.

5. A client vomits 30 minutes after receiving a dose of hydromorphone on the first postoperative day. What initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

• A. Obtain a prescription for nasogastric intubation.
• B. Administer a prn dose of ondansetron.
• C. Reduce the next scheduled dose of hydromorphone.
• D. Assess the client's abdomen and bowel sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's vomiting is likely due to the hydromorphone administration, indicating a need for an antiemetic such as ondansetron to address the nausea. Nasogastric intubation (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the client is vomiting, not experiencing an obstruction. While reducing the dose of hydromorphone (Choice C) may be considered later, the immediate focus should be managing the client's symptoms. Assessing the client's abdomen and bowel sounds (Choice D) can be important but is not the initial priority when addressing the vomiting post hydromorphone administration.

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