Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed carvedilol, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, a potential side effect of this medication. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can slow down the heart rate, so monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any adverse effects on the client's cardiovascular system. Tachycardia (Choice B) is less likely to occur with carvedilol since it primarily works to reduce heart rate. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperglycemia (Choice D) are not common side effects associated with carvedilol.

2. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed citalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Insomnia
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential side effect of citalopram is nausea. Citalopram can cause gastrointestinal disturbances such as nausea, so clients should be advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs to help minimize this side effect. While other side effects like drowsiness, insomnia, and headache may also occur with citalopram, nausea is a common side effect that clients should be informed about. Drowsiness and insomnia are more commonly associated with other medications used to treat anxiety or depression, such as benzodiazepines or certain antidepressants. Headache is a less common side effect of citalopram compared to nausea.

3. When educating a client about the adverse effects of conjunctivitis, what is a serious condition that requires prompt attention?

• A. Contact lens irritation
• B. Decreased sex drive
• C. Brown spots on the skin
• D. Epigastric pain unrelieved by antacids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Epigastric pain unrelieved by antacids is a concerning symptom that may indicate a more serious underlying condition such as a perforated ulcer. This symptom requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications.

4. The healthcare provider has administered albuterol as an inhaled medication. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which possible adverse reaction?

• A. Enuresis
• B. Lethargy
• C. Depression
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator in the adrenergic category. Its actions and adverse effects are similar to adrenaline or epinephrine. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for tachycardia, which is a common adverse effect of albuterol due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors. Enuresis, or night bed-wetting, is not an adverse effect associated with albuterol. Additionally, the client should be monitored for anxiety as a potential adverse effect, not lethargy or depression, which are not typically associated with albuterol administration.

5. A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium. Which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth and increased thirst
• C. Tremors and polyuria
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client taking lithium, dry mouth and increased thirst are indicators of potential adverse effects. Lithium can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, causing polyuria and subsequent increased thirst due to impaired water reabsorption in the kidneys. Tremors can also be a sign of lithium toxicity. Monitoring and recognizing these symptoms are crucial in managing lithium therapy and preventing further complications.

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