a client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel the nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works to prevent blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from the gums. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while bruising and other symptoms can occur as a result of bleeding, they are not the primary side effect to monitor for with clopidogrel. Nausea and headache are less commonly associated with clopidogrel use compared to bleeding.

2. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. This timing helps reduce stomach acid production throughout the day, providing optimal therapeutic effects. Option B is incorrect because taking ranitidine with meals is not the recommended timing. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific contraindication against taking ranitidine with antacids. Option D is incorrect as the medication should not be taken at bedtime but rather in the morning before breakfast.

3. What instructions should the PN reinforce with the client regarding the newly prescribed medications isosorbide dinitrate and hydrochlorothiazide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the client is to slowly rise from a sitting or lying down position. Isosorbide dinitrate, a nitrate, and hydrochlorothiazide, a diuretic, can both cause hypotension. When used together, their additive effects can further lower blood pressure, leading to orthostatic hypotension. Instructing the client to change positions slowly helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure, reducing the risk of dizziness or falls. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the potential side effect of hypotension associated with the prescribed medications. Using a soft bristle toothbrush, elevating legs above the heart level, or limiting fiber intake are not specific instructions to mitigate the risk of orthostatic hypotension.

4. A client whose seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. Which drug should the practical nurse anticipate being prescribed for administration to treat these seizures?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, which is a life-threatening condition of prolonged seizures, rapid intervention is crucial. Diazepam is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA to suppress seizure activity quickly. Phenytoin, although used for long-term seizure control, has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line medication for managing status epilepticus.

5. What should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine for a male client with bipolar disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Baseline weight should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine in a male client with bipolar disorder to monitor for potential weight gain associated with the medication. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain and monitoring the baseline weight can help in assessing any changes during treatment.

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