Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Bruising
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works to prevent blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from the gums. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while bruising and other symptoms can occur as a result of bleeding, they are not the primary side effect to monitor for with clopidogrel. Nausea and headache are less commonly associated with clopidogrel use compared to bleeding.

2. Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?

• A. It takes 1 to 4 weeks for antidepressant medications to become effective.
• B. The dosage may need to be increased; I will contact your health care provider.
• C. Depression is difficult to treat with drugs alone. Therapy sessions would enhance their effectiveness.
• D. Based on your child's response to this drug, the health care provider is reviewing your medication regimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.

3. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Hair loss
• C. Weight gain
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tremors. When a client is prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder, one common side effect to monitor for is tremors. Tremors are a known adverse effect of lithium therapy and should be monitored closely by healthcare providers. Choice A, dry mouth, is not typically associated with lithium use. Hair loss, as in choice B, is not a common side effect of lithium. Weight gain, as mentioned in choice C, can occur with some medications used to treat bipolar disorder, but it is not a prominent side effect of lithium specifically.

4. A client with chronic pain is prescribed oxycodone. What instruction should the practical nurse (PN) include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with meals to avoid gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Avoid taking the medication with alcohol.
• C. Increase fluid intake to avoid constipation.
• D. Report any signs of respiratory depression to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid taking oxycodone with alcohol. Mixing oxycodone with alcohol can lead to serious side effects, including respiratory depression. Taking the medication with meals may not always be necessary, and instructions about fluid intake to avoid constipation are important but not the priority when considering the immediate risks associated with oxycodone. While reporting signs of respiratory depression is crucial, preventing it by avoiding alcohol is key in the client's safety.

5. A client has a prescription for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Several pre-filled syringes of low molecular weight heparin are available in the client's medication drawer. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Dilute the available heparin in 250ml of normal saline solution prior to IV administration
• B. Advise the pharmacy on the need to deliver a vial of heparin to the nursing unit immediately
• C. Calculate and administer the equivalent dose of the available low molecular weight heparin
• D. Request a prescription to change the route of administration and use the available heparin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should contact the pharmacy to obtain the correct heparin formulation as the prescription calls for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Low molecular weight heparin is not the same as unfractionated heparin, and therefore, the nurse should not administer the available low molecular weight heparin without first obtaining the correct medication. Diluting the available heparin, calculating an equivalent dose, or changing the route of administration would not address the discrepancy between the prescribed heparin and the available low molecular weight heparin.

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