HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client is prescribed cyclobenzaprine for muscle spasms. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which substance while taking this medication?
- A. Alcohol
- B. Caffeine
- C. Nicotine
- D. Dairy products
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol. When taking cyclobenzaprine, it is important to avoid alcohol as it can potentiate the central nervous system depressant effects of the medication. This interaction can lead to increased drowsiness, dizziness, and impaired coordination. Therefore, it is essential for the client to refrain from alcohol consumption while on cyclobenzaprine to prevent these adverse effects and ensure their safety. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because caffeine, nicotine, and dairy products do not have significant interactions with cyclobenzaprine. While caffeine and nicotine may have stimulant effects that could theoretically counteract some of the sedative effects of cyclobenzaprine, they are not contraindicated. Dairy products, on the other hand, do not interact with cyclobenzaprine and can be consumed safely.
2. A patient is prescribed sucralfate (Carafate) and asks the nurse what the purpose of taking this medication is. Which is the nurse's best response?
- A. The medication helps reduce bacteria levels in the stomach
- B. The medication helps neutralize gastric acid in the stomach
- C. The medication is used to protect the gastrointestinal mucosa
- D. The medication can reduce the patient's constipation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sucralfate (Carafate) is used to protect the gastrointestinal mucosa by forming a protective barrier over ulcers. This barrier helps prevent stomach acid from further damaging the ulcers and promotes healing. It does not directly reduce bacteria levels, neutralize gastric acid, or have a direct effect on constipation.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. The nurse should instruct the client to report which potential side effect?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Nausea
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry mouth. Tiotropium, a commonly prescribed medication for COPD, can cause dry mouth as a side effect. While it may not be severe, clients should report it if it becomes bothersome. Dry mouth is a common side effect of tiotropium due to its anticholinergic properties. Blurred vision, nausea, and tachycardia are not typically associated with tiotropium use in the context of COPD.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate, the nurse must monitor for hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia. Calcium acetate can increase calcium levels in the blood, leading to hypercalcemia. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include fatigue, confusion, constipation, and muscle weakness. Regular monitoring of calcium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with elevated calcium levels.
5. A client with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. One of the potential side effects of metoprolol is bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial as it can be an adverse effect of this medication.
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