a client is prescribed cyclobenzaprine for muscle spasms the nurse should instruct the client to avoid which substance while taking this medication
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client is prescribed cyclobenzaprine for muscle spasms. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which substance while taking this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol. When taking cyclobenzaprine, it is important to avoid alcohol as it can potentiate the central nervous system depressant effects of the medication. This interaction can lead to increased drowsiness, dizziness, and impaired coordination. Therefore, it is essential for the client to refrain from alcohol consumption while on cyclobenzaprine to prevent these adverse effects and ensure their safety. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because caffeine, nicotine, and dairy products do not have significant interactions with cyclobenzaprine. While caffeine and nicotine may have stimulant effects that could theoretically counteract some of the sedative effects of cyclobenzaprine, they are not contraindicated. Dairy products, on the other hand, do not interact with cyclobenzaprine and can be consumed safely.

2. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed valproic acid. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Valproic acid is known to cause liver toxicity as a potential adverse effect. Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial to detect any signs of liver damage early on and prevent serious complications. Kidney stones, weight gain, and pancreatitis are not typically associated with valproic acid use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any signs of heart failure when taking pioglitazone. Pioglitazone is known to potentially exacerbate heart failure, so it is crucial for clients to monitor and report any symptoms of heart failure promptly to their healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices B and C are important but not specific to pioglitazone use. Choice D is incorrect as bladder cancer is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.

4. A client arrives at the emergency department experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The healthcare provider prescribes an insulin intravenous drip. Which type of insulin should the nurse locate for the registered nurse to mix into the intravenous fluids?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct insulin type for the nurse to mix into the intravenous fluids is regular insulin. In the scenario of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), rapid reduction of blood glucose levels is crucial. Regular insulin has a fast onset of action, making it suitable for intravenous administration to address the high blood sugar levels seen in DKA. Isophane, Glargine, and Detemir are not appropriate choices for intravenous administration in this emergency situation as they are intermediate-acting or long-acting insulins which do not provide the rapid response needed in DKA.

5. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed adalimumab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Adalimumab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Patients on adalimumab should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, and malaise, and should promptly report any such symptoms to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Monitoring for infection is crucial to prevent serious complications in patients receiving adalimumab therapy.

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