a client is prescribed cyclobenzaprine for muscle spasms the nurse should instruct the client to avoid which substance while taking this medication
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client is prescribed cyclobenzaprine for muscle spasms. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which substance while taking this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol. When taking cyclobenzaprine, it is important to avoid alcohol as it can potentiate the central nervous system depressant effects of the medication. This interaction can lead to increased drowsiness, dizziness, and impaired coordination. Therefore, it is essential for the client to refrain from alcohol consumption while on cyclobenzaprine to prevent these adverse effects and ensure their safety. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because caffeine, nicotine, and dairy products do not have significant interactions with cyclobenzaprine. While caffeine and nicotine may have stimulant effects that could theoretically counteract some of the sedative effects of cyclobenzaprine, they are not contraindicated. Dairy products, on the other hand, do not interact with cyclobenzaprine and can be consumed safely.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed doxazosin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Doxazosin is an alpha-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the potential side effects of doxazosin is causing a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to hypotension. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of low blood pressure when initiating or adjusting the dose of doxazosin.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

4. How should the healthcare provider schedule the administering of propylthiouracil (PTU)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering iodine one hour before PTU is crucial to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of PTU. This timing helps optimize the therapeutic benefits of PTU by allowing it to be absorbed efficiently without interference from iodine, ultimately leading to better treatment outcomes for the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because offering both drugs together with a meal, giving parental dose once every 24 hours, and scheduling both medications at bedtime do not address the specific timing requirement of administering iodine before PTU for optimal absorption.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. The practical nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring for hypokalemia is essential because it can cause various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the practical nurse should closely watch for signs and symptoms of low potassium levels in clients taking hydrochlorothiazide. Incorrect Rationale for Other Choices: A. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use; instead, it is more commonly linked to medications like ACE inhibitors or potassium-sparing diuretics. C. Hypernatremia is unlikely with hydrochlorothiazide use as it tends to cause sodium loss. D. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with conditions where there is excessive water intake or syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), rather than with hydrochlorothiazide use.

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