Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted with shortness of breath and palpitations currently takes an antiarrhythmic medication, dronedarone. Which action should the nurse take to prevent arrhythmias?

• A. Measure orthostatic blood pressure
• B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG reading daily
• C. Assess the client's apical pulse daily
• D. Provide continuous ECG monitoring

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to prevent arrhythmias in a client taking an antiarrhythmic medication like dronedarone is to provide continuous ECG monitoring. This is essential because antiarrhythmic drugs can sometimes cause pro-arrhythmic effects, which may lead to dangerous heart rhythm disturbances. Continuous ECG monitoring allows for real-time detection of any abnormal rhythms, enabling prompt intervention. Measuring orthostatic blood pressure, obtaining a 12-lead ECG reading daily, and assessing the client's apical pulse daily are important assessments in general patient care but may not specifically prevent arrhythmias in this scenario.

2. A client whose seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. Which drug should the practical nurse anticipate being prescribed for administration to treat these seizures?

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Phenobarbital
• D. Carbamazepine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, which is a life-threatening condition of prolonged seizures, rapid intervention is crucial. Diazepam is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA to suppress seizure activity quickly. Phenytoin, although used for long-term seizure control, has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line medication for managing status epilepticus.

3. Twenty-four hours after starting to take oral penicillin for strep throat, a client calls the nurse to report the onset of a rash on the chest. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the client to discontinue the penicillin immediately
• B. Instruct the client regarding the use of topical analgesic cream PRN
• C. Question the client about any other related symptoms
• D. Reinforce the need to take all doses of the penicillin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client has developed a rash after starting oral penicillin, which can indicate an allergic reaction. It is crucial for the nurse to instruct the client to discontinue the penicillin immediately. Continuing the medication can potentially lead to severe allergic reactions. Instructing about topical analgesic cream or questioning about other related symptoms may delay appropriate action in case of a severe allergic reaction. Reinforcing the need to complete all doses is not appropriate when an allergic reaction is suspected, as safety takes precedence over completing the antibiotic course.

4. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed omeprazole. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD prescribed omeprazole is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. Omeprazole works best when taken on an empty stomach, approximately 30 minutes before the first meal of the day. This timing maximizes its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and helps manage symptoms of GERD more efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals may reduce its efficacy as it needs an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect because omeprazole can be taken with or without food, but it should not be taken with antacids as they can affect its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because taking omeprazole at bedtime is less effective compared to taking it before breakfast due to the circadian rhythm of gastric acid secretion.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing the effectiveness of the drug amiodarone. Which client statement best indicates that the drug has been effective?

• A. I have not had as many spells of angina.
• B. I have not had as much swelling in my ankles lately.
• C. My doctor told me my cholesterol levels were improving with each visit.
• D. I do not notice as many irregular heartbeats as before I started taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is option D. The effectiveness of amiodarone is best assessed by a reduction in irregular heartbeats since it is primarily used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias. This drug's main purpose is to control irregular heart rhythms, so a decrease in irregular heartbeats indicates its effectiveness. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because amiodarone is not primarily used to address angina, ankle swelling, or cholesterol levels, so improvements in these areas do not directly reflect the drug's effectiveness.

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