Nursing Elites

1. What should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine for a male client with bipolar disorder?

• A. Complete blood count
• B. Family history of hypertension
• C. History of erectile dysfunction
• D. Baseline weight

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Baseline weight should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine in a male client with bipolar disorder to monitor for potential weight gain associated with the medication. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain and monitoring the baseline weight can help in assessing any changes during treatment.

2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. Therefore, a potential adverse effect of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for these signs is essential to prevent serious complications associated with excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern with warfarin therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, so close monitoring for signs of bleeding is essential.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer, the nurse should monitor for hypocalcemia. Sevelamer works by binding dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially cause hypocalcemia.

4. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Hair loss
• C. Weight gain
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tremors. When a client is prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder, one common side effect to monitor for is tremors. Tremors are a known adverse effect of lithium therapy and should be monitored closely by healthcare providers. Choice A, dry mouth, is not typically associated with lithium use. Hair loss, as in choice B, is not a common side effect of lithium. Weight gain, as mentioned in choice C, can occur with some medications used to treat bipolar disorder, but it is not a prominent side effect of lithium specifically.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed ferric citrate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Constipation
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Nausea
• D. Hyperphosphatemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed ferric citrate, the nurse should monitor for constipation as a potential side effect. Ferric citrate can lead to constipation due to its effects on the gastrointestinal system, causing a decrease in bowel movements. It is essential for the nurse to assess and manage constipation promptly to prevent complications and ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Monitoring bowel movements, providing adequate hydration, and recommending dietary interventions can help alleviate constipation in clients taking ferric citrate. Diarrhea, nausea, and hyperphosphatemia are not typically associated with the use of ferric citrate in clients with chronic kidney disease.

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