HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. What should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine for a male client with bipolar disorder?
- A. Complete blood count
- B. Family history of hypertension
- C. History of erectile dysfunction
- D. Baseline weight
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Baseline weight should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine in a male client with bipolar disorder to monitor for potential weight gain associated with the medication. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain and monitoring the baseline weight can help in assessing any changes during treatment.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate, the nurse should monitor for hypercalcemia as a potential side effect. Sevelamer carbonate can bind to dietary calcium and impair its absorption, potentially leading to elevated calcium levels in the blood. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to detect and manage hypercalcemia promptly. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is incorrect because sevelamer carbonate's action is more likely to cause elevated calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are related to potassium levels and are not typically associated with sevelamer carbonate use.
3. A client arrives at the emergency department experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The healthcare provider prescribes an insulin intravenous drip. Which type of insulin should the nurse locate for the registered nurse to mix into the intravenous fluids?
- A. Isophane
- B. Glargine
- C. Regular
- D. Detemir
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct insulin type for the nurse to mix into the intravenous fluids is regular insulin. In the scenario of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), rapid reduction of blood glucose levels is crucial. Regular insulin has a fast onset of action, making it suitable for intravenous administration to address the high blood sugar levels seen in DKA. Isophane, Glargine, and Detemir are not appropriate choices for intravenous administration in this emergency situation as they are intermediate-acting or long-acting insulins which do not provide the rapid response needed in DKA.
4. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed lurasidone. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. When a client is prescribed lurasidone, monitoring for weight gain is essential as lurasidone can cause this side effect. Patients on lurasidone should have their weight monitored regularly to detect any changes that may occur. Options B, C, and D are not typically associated with lurasidone use, making them less likely to be a direct side effect of this medication.
5. A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of furosemide to a client. Which laboratory value is most important for the PN to review before administering the medication?
- A. Serum calcium level
- B. Serum potassium level
- C. Serum sodium level
- D. Serum magnesium level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to review the client's serum potassium level before administering furosemide. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, making it crucial to assess potassium levels to prevent potential complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.
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