Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer, the nurse should monitor for hypocalcemia. Sevelamer works by binding dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially cause hypocalcemia.

2. When a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects. The correct answer is dry mouth. Ipratropium can cause dry mouth as a common side effect due to its anticholinergic effects. This side effect can impact the patient's oral health and comfort, requiring close monitoring and appropriate interventions.

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Insomnia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic medication commonly used in COPD. One of the most common side effects of anticholinergics is dry mouth due to the inhibition of salivary gland function. Tachycardia (Choice B) is not a typical side effect of ipratropium. Insomnia (Choice C) is also not a common side effect of this medication. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not associated with ipratropium use. Therefore, the correct side effect to monitor for in a patient prescribed ipratropium is dry mouth.

3. The practical nurse administered 15 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously to a client before they consumed their breakfast at 7:30 AM. At what time is the client at an increased risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?

• A. 8:30 to 11:30 AM
• B. 3:30 to 7:30 PM
• C. 9:30 PM to midnight
• D. 1:00 to 5:00 AM

Correct answer: B

Rationale: NPH insulin, an intermediate-acting type, peaks approximately 8 to 12 hours after subcutaneous administration. Considering this, the client is most likely to experience a hypoglycemic reaction between 3:30 and 7:30 PM, making option B the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they fall outside the peak time for a hypoglycemic reaction after administering NPH insulin.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed cinacalcet. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyperphosphatemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Cinacalcet is a medication that can lower calcium levels, leading to hypocalcemia. Monitoring for signs of low calcium levels such as muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and abnormal heart rhythms is crucial to prevent complications in clients with chronic kidney disease.\nIncorrect Choices Rationale: B) Hypercalcemia is the opposite effect of cinacalcet; C) Hyperkalemia and D) Hyperphosphatemia are not typically associated with cinacalcet use.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed dapagliflozin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Genital infections
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital infections. Dapagliflozin, a medication used in diabetes mellitus type 2, is associated with an increased risk of genital infections. Its mechanism of action involves promoting glucose excretion through the urine, creating a favorable environment for microbial growth in the genital area. Monitoring for genital infections is crucial when a client is prescribed dapagliflozin. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of dapagliflozin since it does not directly lower blood glucose levels. Hyperglycemia (choice C) is also unlikely as dapagliflozin is intended to help lower blood glucose levels. Nausea (choice D) is a less common side effect of dapagliflozin compared to genital infections.

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