HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Explain the importance of obtaining a blood sample promptly to test for medication toxicity
- B. Consult with the healthcare provider regarding the necessity of an opioid analgesic for pain relief
- C. Recommend the client to discontinue the medication until contacting the healthcare provider
- D. Instruct the client on the use of acetaminophen every 4-6 hours as needed for headaches
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.
2. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed carbamazepine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Agranulocytosis
- B. Hair loss
- C. Liver toxicity
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Carbamazepine is associated with the potential adverse effect of agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts regularly is crucial to detect this adverse effect early and prevent complications.
3. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed adalimumab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of infection
- B. Bone marrow suppression
- C. Hair loss
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Adalimumab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Patients on adalimumab should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, and malaise, and should promptly report any such symptoms to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Monitoring for infection is crucial to prevent serious complications in patients receiving adalimumab therapy.
4. A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of furosemide to a client. Which laboratory value is most important for the PN to review before administering the medication?
- A. Serum calcium level
- B. Serum potassium level
- C. Serum sodium level
- D. Serum magnesium level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to review the client's serum potassium level before administering furosemide. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, making it crucial to assess potassium levels to prevent potential complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed empagliflozin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Genital infections
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital infections. Empagliflozin, a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes, is associated with an increased risk of genital infections. This is due to its mechanism of action, which involves promoting the excretion of glucose through urine, creating a more favorable environment for fungal or bacterial growth in the genital area. Choices B and C, hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, are less likely adverse effects of empagliflozin. Empagliflozin actually carries a low risk of causing hypoglycemia since it works independently of insulin. Nausea (Choice D) is not a commonly reported adverse effect of empagliflozin, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.
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