HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client has a prescription for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Several pre-filled syringes of low molecular weight heparin are available in the client's medication drawer. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Dilute the available heparin in 250ml of normal saline solution prior to IV administration
- B. Advise the pharmacy on the need to deliver a vial of heparin to the nursing unit immediately
- C. Calculate and administer the equivalent dose of the available low molecular weight heparin
- D. Request a prescription to change the route of administration and use the available heparin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should contact the pharmacy to obtain the correct heparin formulation as the prescription calls for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Low molecular weight heparin is not the same as unfractionated heparin, and therefore, the nurse should not administer the available low molecular weight heparin without first obtaining the correct medication. Diluting the available heparin, calculating an equivalent dose, or changing the route of administration would not address the discrepancy between the prescribed heparin and the available low molecular weight heparin.
2. In the emergency department, a child is admitted for accidental ingestion of a poison. The practical nurse (PN) should know that inducing vomiting is recommended for which child?
- A. An 8-month-old who ingested four to six ibuprofen tablets
- B. A 3-year-old who drank an unknown amount of charcoal lighter fluid
- C. A 16-month-old who ingested 2 ounces of acetaminophen elixir
- D. A 2-year-old who ate a handful of automatic dishwasher detergent
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inducing emesis is recommended for the child who ingested a large dose of acetaminophen elixir because this medication is hepatotoxic. Acetaminophen overdose can lead to severe liver damage, and prompt removal from the stomach can help reduce absorption and potential harm.
3. What action should the nurse implement for a female client taking the bisphosphonate medication ibandronate for osteoporosis?
- A. Ask the client to describe how she takes the medication
- B. Reassure the client that the heartburn is temporary
- C. Explain that the use of antacids might be helpful
- D. Encourage the client to increase her calcium intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ensuring correct administration of bisphosphonates, like ibandronate, is essential to maximize effectiveness and minimize potential side effects. By asking the client to describe how she takes the medication, the nurse can assess the client's understanding and adherence to the prescribed regimen, ultimately promoting optimal therapeutic outcomes.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed liraglutide. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Administer this medication once a week.
- B. Administer this medication once a month.
- C. Administer this medication twice a day.
- D. Administer this medication once a day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer liraglutide once a day. Liraglutide is typically prescribed to be taken once daily, as directed by the healthcare provider. This dosing schedule helps maintain consistent levels of the medication in the body to effectively manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes mellitus type 2. Option A, administering once a week, is incorrect as it would not provide consistent control of blood sugar levels. Option B, administering once a month, is also incorrect as it is not the recommended dosing frequency for liraglutide. Option C, administering twice a day, is inaccurate as liraglutide is not typically dosed in this manner. It is important for the nurse to emphasize the importance of adherence to the prescribed dosing regimen to achieve optimal therapeutic outcomes.
5. A client with asthma is receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The nurse includes a risk for impaired skin integrity on the client's problem list. What is the rationale for including this problem?
- A. Abnormal fat deposits impair circulation
- B. Frequent diarrhea can lead to skin issues
- C. Thinned skin bruises easily
- D. Decreased serum glucose prolongs healing time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glucocorticoids can cause skin thinning, which increases the likelihood of bruising. Thinning of the skin due to glucocorticoid therapy makes it more fragile and prone to injury, such as bruising, even with minimal trauma. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because abnormal fat deposits impairing circulation, frequent diarrhea causing skin issues, and decreased serum glucose prolonging healing time are not direct effects of glucocorticoid therapy on skin integrity.
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