Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?

• A. It reduces the production of angiotensin II.
• B. It increases the production of angiotensin II.
• C. It causes increased production of bradykinin.
• D. It increases the production of aldosterone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.

2. When a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed fondaparinux, the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fondaparinux is an anticoagulant prescribed to prevent blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for an increased risk of bleeding, which is a potential adverse effect of this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fondaparinux does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as unexplained bruising, bleeding gums, or blood in the urine or stool, is crucial when a client is on fondaparinux.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial because it may lead to non-adherence to the medication. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics, not ACE inhibitors like lisinopril. Hypernatremia (choice C) refers to elevated sodium levels and is not a common side effect of lisinopril. Hyponatremia (choice D) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels and is not a typical side effect of lisinopril. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing the client for a dry cough when taking lisinopril.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed canagliflozin. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Report any signs of urinary tract infection.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Avoid taking this medication with grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the client's teaching plan is to report any signs of urinary tract infection. Canagliflozin, a medication used in diabetes mellitus type 2, can increase the risk of urinary tract infections. Instructing the client to report any signs of infection is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take canagliflozin with meals, avoid alcohol, or restrict grapefruit juice consumption while on this medication.

5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed omeprazole. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD prescribed omeprazole is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. Omeprazole works best when taken on an empty stomach, approximately 30 minutes before the first meal of the day. This timing maximizes its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and helps manage symptoms of GERD more efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals may reduce its efficacy as it needs an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect because omeprazole can be taken with or without food, but it should not be taken with antacids as they can affect its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because taking omeprazole at bedtime is less effective compared to taking it before breakfast due to the circadian rhythm of gastric acid secretion.

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