HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023
1. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?
- A. It reduces the production of angiotensin II.
- B. It increases the production of angiotensin II.
- C. It causes increased production of bradykinin.
- D. It increases the production of aldosterone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.
2. What instructions should the practical nurse (PN) review with a client diagnosed with vaginal trichomoniasis who is prescribed oral metronidazole?
- A. Avoid direct sunlight exposure and use a sunscreen product with SPF100.
- B. The client's sexual partner(s) should also be treated.
- C. Avoid vinegar or commercial product douches.
- D. Eliminate dairy products from the diet during treatment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The practical nurse should instruct the client that their sexual partner(s) should also be treated when dealing with vaginal trichomoniasis. This is crucial to prevent reinfection as sexual intercourse is the route of spread for this infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While avoiding direct sunlight exposure and using sunscreen is important for some medications, it is not specifically related to metronidazole treatment for trichomoniasis. Avoiding vinegar or commercial douches is a general recommendation for vaginal health and not specific to this infection. Eliminating dairy products from the diet is not a typical instruction for clients prescribed metronidazole for vaginal trichomoniasis.
3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly associated with causing peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it may indicate a need for dosage adjustment or further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as amlodipine is not known to cause tachycardia, bradycardia, or increased appetite as adverse effects.
4. A client with asthma is prescribed montelukast. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication is used for which purpose?
- A. Immediate relief of acute asthma attacks
- B. Long-term control of asthma symptoms
- C. Treatment of exercise-induced bronchospasm
- D. Immediate relief of allergic rhinitis symptoms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for the long-term control of asthma symptoms by reducing inflammation in the airways. It is not typically used for immediate relief during acute asthma attacks, where short-acting bronchodilators are more appropriate. Montelukast does not specifically target exercise-induced bronchospasm or allergic rhinitis symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A is incorrect because montelukast is not for immediate relief of acute asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect as montelukast is not primarily used to treat exercise-induced bronchospasm. Choice D is incorrect because montelukast is not indicated for immediate relief of allergic rhinitis symptoms.
5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed enoxaparin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. One of the potential adverse effects of enoxaparin is an increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications.
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