HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023
1. A client with severe depression is prescribed sertraline. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
- B. It may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
- C. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients should not stop taking sertraline abruptly once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider. It is important to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed to prevent a relapse of symptoms. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and may worsen the condition. Choice B is correct because sertraline may take 1 to 4 weeks to show noticeable improvement in symptoms. Choice C is correct as alcohol should be avoided while taking sertraline due to the increased risk of side effects. Choice D is also correct as taking sertraline in the morning with food can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects.
2. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed bupropion. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. This medication may cause weight gain.
- B. This medication may take several weeks to take effect.
- C. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bupropion is associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. It is important for the client to be aware of this potential side effect. Choice B is correct because bupropion may take several weeks to exhibit its full therapeutic effects. Choice C is also accurate as alcohol consumption should be avoided while taking bupropion due to the risk of seizures. Choice D is correct as taking bupropion in the morning with food can help reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects.
3. The patient is prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) orally. What should the nurse consider about administering this drug?
- A. Administer the drug with the first bite of food
- B. Administer the drug immediately after meals
- C. Administer the drug 30 minutes after meals
- D. Administer the drug 30 minutes before meals
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cimetidine is best absorbed when taken 30 minutes before meals to decrease stomach acid. Administering it before meals allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering cimetidine with food, immediately after meals, or 30 minutes after meals may not provide the best conditions for absorption. Taking it before meals ensures that the drug is absorbed properly and can exert its intended effects.
4. A client who received a renal transplant three months ago is readmitted to the acute care unit with signs of graft rejection. While taking the client's history, the nurse determines the client has been self-administering St. John's wort, an herbal preparation, on the advice of a friend. What information is most significant about this finding?
- A. Wort can decrease plasma concentration of Cyclospora
- B. Wort can decrease plasma concentration of Tacrolimus
- C. Wort can decrease plasma concentration of Cyclosporine
- D. Wort can decrease plasma concentration of Mycophenolate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most significant information about the client self-administering St. John's wort, an herbal preparation, is that it can decrease the plasma concentration of Cyclosporine. St. John's wort is known to reduce the efficacy of Cyclosporine, which is a common immunosuppressant drug used to prevent transplant rejection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because St. John's wort does not affect the plasma concentration of Cyclospora, Tacrolimus, or Mycophenolate.
5. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed infliximab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of infection
- B. Bone marrow suppression
- C. Hair loss
- D. Pancreatitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Infliximab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs of infection in the client receiving infliximab to promptly address any potential complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bone marrow suppression, hair loss, and pancreatitis are not typically associated with infliximab therapy. While these adverse effects can occur with other medications, the primary concern with infliximab is the increased risk of infection.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access