HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. Phenazopyridine is commonly prescribed for clients with urinary tract infections (UTI). Which statement by the practical nurse describes the purpose for the administration of phenazopyridine?
- A. To alter the pH level of the urine
- B. To reduce the frequency of bladder spasms
- C. To alleviate the painful symptoms caused by the UTI
- D. To prevent bacterial replication and resistance development
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Phenazopyridine, a urinary analgesic, is utilized to alleviate the pain associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs) like burning, pain, urgency, and frequent voiding. The administration of phenazopyridine can cause the urine to turn a bright red-orange color. It is recommended to take this medication with food to reduce gastric irritation. Phenazopyridine should only be used for a maximum of 2 days when taken alongside an antibacterial agent, which is typically prescribed for about 2 weeks to treat the underlying infection.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed lanthanum carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lanthanum carbonate is prescribed in chronic kidney disease to bind dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract. This action can lead to decreased phosphorus absorption and potential hypercalcemia due to the increased serum calcium levels. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia, such as confusion, fatigue, and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lanthanum carbonate's mechanism of action does not lead to hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia.
3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Quetiapine is known to cause weight gain as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's weight is crucial to identify any significant changes that may occur due to the medication.
4. A patient is prescribed sucralfate (Carafate) and asks the nurse what the purpose of taking this medication is. Which is the nurse's best response?
- A. The medication helps reduce bacteria levels in the stomach
- B. The medication helps neutralize gastric acid in the stomach
- C. The medication is used to protect the gastrointestinal mucosa
- D. The medication can reduce the patient's constipation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sucralfate (Carafate) is used to protect the gastrointestinal mucosa by forming a protective barrier over ulcers. This barrier helps prevent stomach acid from further damaging the ulcers and promotes healing. It does not directly reduce bacteria levels, neutralize gastric acid, or have a direct effect on constipation.
5. A 59-year-old client is prescribed furosemide 40 mg twice a day for the management of heart failure. The practical nurse should monitor the client for the development of which complication?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperchloremia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypophosphatemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased potassium excretion and potentially causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac irregularities, making it crucial for the practical nurse to monitor the client for this electrolyte imbalance. Choice B, Hyperchloremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choices C and D, Hypercalcemia and Hypophosphatemia, are not common complications of furosemide therapy.
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