HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the practical nurse (PN) include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication with meals to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
- B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking the medication.
- D. Take the medication with meals to increase absorption.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This helps ensure proper ingestion and absorption of the medication. While taking metformin with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, the primary focus should be on adequate hydration and absorption by taking it with water. Avoiding alcohol while taking metformin is also important as alcohol can increase the risk of lactic acidosis when combined with metformin. Taking the medication with meals to increase absorption is incorrect as metformin should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset, not to increase absorption.
2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is the most important instruction the practical nurse (PN) should provide to the client?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Avoid taking folic acid supplements.
- C. Report any signs of infection immediately.
- D. Increase intake of vitamin C-rich foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: The most important instruction for a client taking methotrexate is to report any signs of infection immediately. Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. Early detection and treatment of infections are crucial to prevent complications. Instructing the client to be vigilant for signs of infection empowers them to take prompt action, enhancing their overall safety and well-being.
3. Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?
- A. It takes 1 to 4 weeks for antidepressant medications to become effective.
- B. The dosage may need to be increased; I will contact your health care provider.
- C. Depression is difficult to treat with drugs alone. Therapy sessions would enhance their effectiveness.
- D. Based on your child's response to this drug, the health care provider is reviewing your medication regimen.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.
4. A client has a prescription for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Several pre-filled syringes of low molecular weight heparin are available in the client's medication drawer. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Dilute the available heparin in 250ml of normal saline solution prior to IV administration
- B. Advise the pharmacy on the need to deliver a vial of heparin to the nursing unit immediately
- C. Calculate and administer the equivalent dose of the available low molecular weight heparin
- D. Request a prescription to change the route of administration and use the available heparin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should contact the pharmacy to obtain the correct heparin formulation as the prescription calls for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Low molecular weight heparin is not the same as unfractionated heparin, and therefore, the nurse should not administer the available low molecular weight heparin without first obtaining the correct medication. Diluting the available heparin, calculating an equivalent dose, or changing the route of administration would not address the discrepancy between the prescribed heparin and the available low molecular weight heparin.
5. A client with hypertension is prescribed doxazosin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Doxazosin is an alpha-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the potential side effects of doxazosin is causing a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to hypotension. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of low blood pressure when initiating or adjusting the dose of doxazosin.
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