Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the practical nurse (PN) include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with meals to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking the medication.
• D. Take the medication with meals to increase absorption.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This helps ensure proper ingestion and absorption of the medication. While taking metformin with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, the primary focus should be on adequate hydration and absorption by taking it with water. Avoiding alcohol while taking metformin is also important as alcohol can increase the risk of lactic acidosis when combined with metformin. Taking the medication with meals to increase absorption is incorrect as metformin should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset, not to increase absorption.

2. The healthcare professional is creating a class for older adults in the community. Which information about laxative use in older adults would be important to include?

• A. Laxatives are not effective in older adults
• B. All laxatives are exactly the same
• C. Over-the-counter laxatives are misused
• D. Laxatives can cause potassium retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is important to include information about the misuse of over-the-counter laxatives in older adults as they often misuse these medications, which can lead to dependency and other health issues. Option A is incorrect as laxatives can be effective in older adults when used appropriately. Option B is incorrect because not all laxatives are the same, they have different mechanisms of action and side effects. Option D is incorrect because laxatives can actually cause electrolyte imbalances like potassium depletion rather than retention.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because apixaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern when administering apixaban is monitoring for potential bleeding complications.

4. A 6-month-old infant is prescribed digoxin for the treatment of congestive heart failure. Which observation by the practical nurse (PN) warrants immediate intervention for signs of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Apical heart rate of 60 beats/min
• B. Sweating across the forehead
• C. Poor sucking effort
• D. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 60 beats/min for a 6-month-old infant warrants immediate intervention as it falls below the normal range. The normal heart rate for a 6-month-old is 80 to 150 beats/min when awake, and a rate of 70 beats/min while sleeping is considered within normal limits. Bradycardia (heart rate <60 beats/min) in infants can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, necessitating prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent adverse effects. Sweating across the forehead (Choice B) is a non-specific symptom and may not directly indicate digoxin toxicity. Poor sucking effort (Choice C) and a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min (Choice D) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity and do not require immediate intervention in the context of this question.

5. A client with angina pectoris has been prescribed nitroglycerin tablets prn for chest pain. Which statement by the client causes the practical nurse (PN) to clarify instructions for this client?

• A. I will take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three tablets.
• B. I should take one tablet at the onset of angina and stop activity.
• C. I need to replace nitroglycerin tablets every 3 to 6 months to maintain freshness.
• D. I should ensure that I chew the pill completely before swallowing it.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin tablets should be taken at the onset of angina, and the client should stop activity and rest. One tablet should be placed under the tongue (sublingually), not chewed or swallowed. One tablet can be taken every 5 minutes, up to three doses. If pain relief not achieved after taking three pills, seek medical attention immediately. Nitroglycerin should be replaced every 3 to 6 months. Nitroglycerin pain relief should occur in 5 minutes and duration should last 30 minutes.

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