HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed verapamil. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Headache
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can commonly cause constipation due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, monitoring for constipation is important when a client is prescribed verapamil.
2. When educating a client about the adverse effects of conjunctivitis, what is a serious condition that requires prompt attention?
- A. Contact lens irritation
- B. Decreased sex drive
- C. Brown spots on the skin
- D. Epigastric pain unrelieved by antacids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Epigastric pain unrelieved by antacids is a concerning symptom that may indicate a more serious underlying condition such as a perforated ulcer. This symptom requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications.
3. A practical nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving theophylline. Which symptom indicates that the client may be experiencing theophylline toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tremors
- C. Constipation
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tremors are a common symptom of theophylline toxicity. Other symptoms that may indicate theophylline toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and seizures. Bradycardia, constipation, and hypotension are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client closely for these signs of toxicity and report them promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications.
4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding as rivaroxaban increases the risk of bleeding. Common adverse effects of rivaroxaban include bleeding events, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. It is crucial for the nurse to assess for these signs to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because rivaroxaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. Monitoring for bleeding is essential due to the anticoagulant properties of rivaroxaban.
5. A client with heart failure develops hyperaldosteronism. What dietary recommendation is essential for managing this condition?
- A. Limit intake of high potassium foods
- B. Replace salt with salt substitute
- C. Monitor skin for excessive bruising
- D. Cover your skin before going outside
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperaldosteronism can lead to increased potassium retention, which can be problematic for individuals with heart failure. Limiting intake of high potassium foods is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a condition that can worsen heart failure. Therefore, advising the client to limit high potassium foods is essential in managing hyperaldosteronism in the setting of heart failure.
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