Nursing Elites

1. A client prescribed glipizide asked why they had to take their insulin orally. How should the practical nurse respond?

• A. Glipizide is not an oral form of insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is present.
• B. Glipizide is an oral form of insulin and is distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the same manner as insulin.
• C. Glipizide is an oral form of insulin and has the same actions and properties as intermediate insulin.
• D. Glipizide is not an oral form of insulin, but it is effective for those who are resistant to injectable insulins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The practical nurse should explain to the client that glipizide is not an oral form of insulin but an oral hypoglycemic agent. Glipizide works by enhancing pancreatic production of insulin when some beta cell function is present. It is not a replacement for insulin but helps the body produce more insulin. Therefore, it can be used when there is still some beta cell function present, unlike insulin which is used when there is a deficiency of endogenous insulin production.

2. A 6-month-old infant is prescribed digoxin for the treatment of congestive heart failure. Which observation by the practical nurse (PN) warrants immediate intervention for signs of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Apical heart rate of 60 beats/min
• B. Sweating across the forehead
• C. Poor sucking effort
• D. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 60 beats/min for a 6-month-old infant warrants immediate intervention as it falls below the normal range. The normal heart rate for a 6-month-old is 80 to 150 beats/min when awake, and a rate of 70 beats/min while sleeping is considered within normal limits. Bradycardia (heart rate <60 beats/min) in infants can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, necessitating prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent adverse effects. Sweating across the forehead (Choice B) is a non-specific symptom and may not directly indicate digoxin toxicity. Poor sucking effort (Choice C) and a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min (Choice D) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity and do not require immediate intervention in the context of this question.

3. What instructions should the practical nurse (PN) review with a client diagnosed with vaginal trichomoniasis who is prescribed oral metronidazole?

• A. Avoid direct sunlight exposure and use a sunscreen product with SPF100.
• B. The client's sexual partner(s) should also be treated.
• C. Avoid vinegar or commercial product douches.
• D. Eliminate dairy products from the diet during treatment.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The practical nurse should instruct the client that their sexual partner(s) should also be treated when dealing with vaginal trichomoniasis. This is crucial to prevent reinfection as sexual intercourse is the route of spread for this infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While avoiding direct sunlight exposure and using sunscreen is important for some medications, it is not specifically related to metronidazole treatment for trichomoniasis. Avoiding vinegar or commercial douches is a general recommendation for vaginal health and not specific to this infection. Eliminating dairy products from the diet is not a typical instruction for clients prescribed metronidazole for vaginal trichomoniasis.

4. A client has been taking simvastatin for 3 days and calls the nurse at the clinic to report extreme muscle tenderness and pain. Which is the most appropriate action?

• A. Notify the health care provider.
• B. Review the medication with the client.
• C. Advise the client to avoid grapefruit juice.
• D. Remind the client to limit physical activity until evaluated by the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Extreme muscle tenderness and pain in a client taking simvastatin could indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious condition. Promptly notifying the health care provider is crucial to evaluate and manage this potential medical emergency. Reviewing the medication with the client may not address the urgency of the situation. Advising the client to avoid grapefruit juice is not directly related to the client's current symptoms. Reminding the client to limit physical activity until evaluated by the health care provider is not appropriate as the client's symptoms should be assessed by a professional first.

5. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Explain the importance of obtaining a blood sample promptly to test for medication toxicity
• B. Consult with the healthcare provider regarding the necessity of an opioid analgesic for pain relief
• C. Recommend the client to discontinue the medication until contacting the healthcare provider
• D. Instruct the client on the use of acetaminophen every 4-6 hours as needed for headaches

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.

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