a client prescribed glipizide asked why they had to take their insulin orally how should the practical nurse respond
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. A client prescribed glipizide asked why they had to take their insulin orally. How should the practical nurse respond?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The practical nurse should explain to the client that glipizide is not an oral form of insulin but an oral hypoglycemic agent. Glipizide works by enhancing pancreatic production of insulin when some beta cell function is present. It is not a replacement for insulin but helps the body produce more insulin. Therefore, it can be used when there is still some beta cell function present, unlike insulin which is used when there is a deficiency of endogenous insulin production.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed leflunomide. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Leflunomide can increase sensitivity to sunlight. While it is important to avoid excessive sun exposure, the critical instruction for the client is to avoid alcohol while taking this medication. Alcohol can potentiate the hepatotoxic effects of leflunomide, making it crucial for the client to abstain from alcohol consumption to prevent liver damage.

3. A client with anxiety is prescribed alprazolam. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.' Alprazolam should not be stopped suddenly as it can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is important for clients to taper off the medication gradually under medical supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is irrelevant to alprazolam administration instructions. Choice B, 'Avoid activities that require alertness,' is not the priority teaching point for alprazolam. Choice D, 'This medication may cause drowsiness,' is a common side effect of alprazolam but not the most critical instruction to include in the teaching plan.

4. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quetiapine is known to cause weight gain as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's weight is crucial to identify any significant changes that may occur due to the medication.

5. A client vomits 30 minutes after receiving a dose of hydromorphone on the first postoperative day. What initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's vomiting is likely due to the hydromorphone administration, indicating a need for an antiemetic such as ondansetron to address the nausea. Nasogastric intubation (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the client is vomiting, not experiencing an obstruction. While reducing the dose of hydromorphone (Choice C) may be considered later, the immediate focus should be managing the client's symptoms. Assessing the client's abdomen and bowel sounds (Choice D) can be important but is not the initial priority when addressing the vomiting post hydromorphone administration.

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