a client prescribed glipizide asked why they had to take their insulin orally how should the practical nurse respond
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. A client prescribed glipizide asked why they had to take their insulin orally. How should the practical nurse respond?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The practical nurse should explain to the client that glipizide is not an oral form of insulin but an oral hypoglycemic agent. Glipizide works by enhancing pancreatic production of insulin when some beta cell function is present. It is not a replacement for insulin but helps the body produce more insulin. Therefore, it can be used when there is still some beta cell function present, unlike insulin which is used when there is a deficiency of endogenous insulin production.

2. A postoperative client has a prescription for ketorolac 30mg IV q6h. Which response demonstrates that therapeutic levels of the medication have been achieved?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale. Ketorolac is an NSAID prescribed for pain relief. Monitoring pain levels is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication. Pain assessment helps determine if the medication is providing adequate pain relief, indicating that therapeutic levels have been achieved.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing the effectiveness of the drug amiodarone. Which client statement best indicates that the drug has been effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is option D. The effectiveness of amiodarone is best assessed by a reduction in irregular heartbeats since it is primarily used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias. This drug's main purpose is to control irregular heart rhythms, so a decrease in irregular heartbeats indicates its effectiveness. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because amiodarone is not primarily used to address angina, ankle swelling, or cholesterol levels, so improvements in these areas do not directly reflect the drug's effectiveness.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.

5. When a client with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose, which parameter is essential to monitor for a response to the drug?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hepatic encephalopathy, the goal of lactulose therapy is to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting its excretion in the stool. Therefore, monitoring serum electrolytes and ammonia levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose in lowering ammonia levels and improving the client's condition. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because serum hepatic enzymes, fingerstick glucose, and stool color/character are not directly related to monitoring the response to lactulose therapy in hepatic encephalopathy.

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