Nursing Elites

1. A client who is obtunded arrives in the emergency center with a suspected drug overdose. Intravenous naloxone is given, but within a short period, the client's level of consciousness deteriorates. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Initiate a second intravenous access site
• B. Prepare to initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• C. Determine the results of the drug toxicity screen
• D. Administer an additional dose of naloxone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering an additional dose of naloxone should be the first action taken by the nurse in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. If the client's level of consciousness deteriorates after the initial dose, administering another dose can help further reverse the overdose effects and improve the client's condition. Once the additional naloxone dose is given, the nurse can then proceed to assess the client's response and consider other interventions as needed.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glipizide. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take this medication with meals.
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Report any signs of hypoglycemia to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed glipizide, a sulfonylurea used to lower blood sugar levels, is to take the medication with meals. Taking it with meals helps to minimize the risk of hypoglycemia by ensuring a more balanced effect on blood glucose levels throughout the day. It is important for the client to follow this instruction to maintain stable blood sugar levels and reduce the likelihood of experiencing low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) episodes. Choice B is incorrect because there are no specific contraindications between glipizide and alcohol. Choice C is incorrect as glipizide should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as while it is important to report signs of hypoglycemia, the primary focus should be on preventing hypoglycemia by taking the medication with meals.

3. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed epoetin alfa. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin alfa can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect because it stimulates increased red blood cell production. This can result in elevated blood pressure levels, requiring careful monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications. Choice B, hypotension, is incorrect because epoetin alfa is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension. Choice C, hyperglycemia, and Choice D, tachycardia, are also incorrect as they are not commonly associated with the use of epoetin alfa.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate, the nurse should monitor for hypercalcemia as a potential side effect. Sevelamer carbonate can bind to dietary calcium and impair its absorption, potentially leading to elevated calcium levels in the blood. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to detect and manage hypercalcemia promptly. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is incorrect because sevelamer carbonate's action is more likely to cause elevated calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are related to potassium levels and are not typically associated with sevelamer carbonate use.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. The nurse should instruct the client to report which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Nausea
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry mouth. Tiotropium, a commonly prescribed medication for COPD, can cause dry mouth as a side effect. While it may not be severe, clients should report it if it becomes bothersome. Dry mouth is a common side effect of tiotropium due to its anticholinergic properties. Blurred vision, nausea, and tachycardia are not typically associated with tiotropium use in the context of COPD.

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