Nursing Elites

1. A client who is obtunded arrives in the emergency center with a suspected drug overdose. Intravenous naloxone is given, but within a short period, the client's level of consciousness deteriorates. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Initiate a second intravenous access site
• B. Prepare to initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• C. Determine the results of the drug toxicity screen
• D. Administer an additional dose of naloxone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering an additional dose of naloxone should be the first action taken by the nurse in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. If the client's level of consciousness deteriorates after the initial dose, administering another dose can help further reverse the overdose effects and improve the client's condition. Once the additional naloxone dose is given, the nurse can then proceed to assess the client's response and consider other interventions as needed.

2. In the immediate postoperative period, a client is prescribed morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which finding should the PN consider the highest priority in this client?

• A. Monitoring the expiration date of the PCA morphine
• B. Assessing the rate and depth of the client's respirations
• C. Reviewing the type of anesthesia used during the surgery
• D. Observing the client's signs of disorientation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The highest priority for the PN is to assess the rate and depth of the client's respirations when a client is receiving morphine via a PCA pump. Respiratory depression is a life-threatening side effect of intravenous morphine administration. If the client's respiratory rate falls below 10 breaths/min, the PCA pump should be stopped, and the healthcare provider must be notified immediately to prevent further complications. Monitoring the expiration date of the PCA morphine is important but not the highest priority compared to assessing respiratory status. Reviewing the type of anesthesia used during the surgery is not directly related to the immediate management of the client receiving morphine via PCA. Observing signs of disorientation is also important but not as critical as assessing respirations for potential respiratory depression.

3. The nurse is preparing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which medication should the nurse review with the client to manage this?

• A. Guaifenesin
• B. Prednisone
• C. Salmeterol
• D. Tiotropium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tiotropium is commonly used for COPD management.

4. When a client with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose, which parameter is essential to monitor for a response to the drug?

• A. Serum hepatic enzymes
• B. Fingerstick glucose
• C. Stool color and character
• D. Serum electrolytes and ammonia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hepatic encephalopathy, the goal of lactulose therapy is to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting its excretion in the stool. Therefore, monitoring serum electrolytes and ammonia levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose in lowering ammonia levels and improving the client's condition. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because serum hepatic enzymes, fingerstick glucose, and stool color/character are not directly related to monitoring the response to lactulose therapy in hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed dabigatran. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Weight gain
• C. Headache
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Headache. Dabigatran, an anticoagulant, can cause headache as a potential side effect. Headache is important to monitor as it may indicate adverse effects or complications that need attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and dizziness are not commonly associated with dabigatran use.

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