HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed adalimumab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of infection
- B. Bone marrow suppression
- C. Hair loss
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Adalimumab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Patients on adalimumab should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, and malaise, and should promptly report any such symptoms to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Monitoring for infection is crucial to prevent serious complications in patients receiving adalimumab therapy.
2. A client is prescribed an antacid for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. What is the action of this medication that is effective in treating the client's ulcer?
- A. Decrease in the production of gastric secretions
- B. Production of an adherent barrier over the ulcer
- C. Maintenance of a gastric pH of 3.5 or above
- D. Decrease in the gastric motor activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antacids work by neutralizing gastric acids and maintaining a gastric pH of 3.5 or above. This pH level is crucial to prevent the activation of pepsinogen, a precursor to pepsin, which can further damage the ulcer. Choice A is incorrect because antacids do not directly decrease the production of gastric secretions; they neutralize existing acid. Choice B is incorrect as antacids do not form a physical barrier over the ulcer but rather neutralize the acid around it. Choice D is also incorrect as antacids do not affect gastric motor activity but focus on reducing acidity in the stomach.
3. A female client who started chemotherapy three days ago for cancer of the breast calls the clinic reporting that she is so upset she cannot sleep. The client has several PRN medications available. Which drug should the nurse instruct her to take?
- A. Ondansetron 8mgPO no
- B. Lorazepam 2mg PO bedtime
- C. Oxycodone, acetylsalicylic acid one tablet q4 hours PRN
- D. Acetaminophen, diphenhydramine 2 capsules bedtime
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acetaminophen and diphenhydramine help with sleep without severe side effects.
4. The nurse is preparing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which medication should the nurse review with the client to manage this?
- A. Guaifenesin
- B. Prednisone
- C. Salmeterol
- D. Tiotropium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Tiotropium is commonly used for COPD management.
5. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, which is a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage bradycardia promptly.
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