Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed darbepoetin alfa. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Darbepoetin alfa, used to treat anemia in chronic kidney disease, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication stimulates red blood cell production, which can increase blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is crucial to detect and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, hyperkalemia, and hyperglycemia are not commonly associated with darbepoetin alfa therapy in chronic kidney disease.

2. Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?

• A. It takes 1 to 4 weeks for antidepressant medications to become effective.
• B. The dosage may need to be increased; I will contact your health care provider.
• C. Depression is difficult to treat with drugs alone. Therapy sessions would enhance their effectiveness.
• D. Based on your child's response to this drug, the health care provider is reviewing your medication regimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed liraglutide. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Administer this medication once a week.
• B. Administer this medication once a month.
• C. Administer this medication twice a day.
• D. Administer this medication once a day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer liraglutide once a day. Liraglutide is typically prescribed to be taken once daily, as directed by the healthcare provider. This dosing schedule helps maintain consistent levels of the medication in the body to effectively manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes mellitus type 2. Option A, administering once a week, is incorrect as it would not provide consistent control of blood sugar levels. Option B, administering once a month, is also incorrect as it is not the recommended dosing frequency for liraglutide. Option C, administering twice a day, is inaccurate as liraglutide is not typically dosed in this manner. It is important for the nurse to emphasize the importance of adherence to the prescribed dosing regimen to achieve optimal therapeutic outcomes.

4. A client who takes metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is nothing by mouth (NPO) for surgery. What pre-op prescription should the practical nurse (PN) anticipate for this client's glucose management?

• A. NPO except for metformin and regular snacks
• B. NPO except for oral antidiabetic agent
• C. Novolin-N insulin subcutaneously twice daily
• D. Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client taking metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is NPO for surgery, it is crucial to manage their glucose levels effectively. The best approach in this situation is to prescribe regular insulin subcutaneously according to a sliding scale based on the client's blood glucose levels. This method allows for precise adjustment of insulin doses to maintain blood glucose within the target range while the client is unable to take oral medications. Choices A and B are incorrect because metformin is typically held when a client is NPO, and oral antidiabetic agents may not provide sufficient glucose control. Choice C is incorrect as Novolin-N insulin given twice daily may not offer the flexibility needed for glucose management in a surgical setting where the client's intake is restricted.

5. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed oxcarbazepine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Liver toxicity
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyponatremia. Oxcarbazepine, an anticonvulsant used in bipolar disorder, can lead to hyponatremia. This is because it can cause the body to retain water, leading to a dilution of sodium levels in the blood. Monitoring sodium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as confusion, seizures, and even coma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Agranulocytosis is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Liver toxicity is a potential adverse effect of some medications but not commonly seen with oxcarbazepine. While weight gain can be a side effect of certain medications used in bipolar disorder treatment, it is not a common adverse effect of oxcarbazepine.

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