Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Hair loss
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain as a common side effect. This weight gain can increase the risk of metabolic issues such as diabetes and dyslipidemia. Monitoring the client's weight regularly is essential to detect and address any weight changes promptly.

2. A client with heart failure develops hyperaldosteronism. What dietary recommendation is essential for managing this condition?

• A. Limit intake of high potassium foods
• B. Replace salt with salt substitute
• C. Monitor skin for excessive bruising
• D. Cover your skin before going outside

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperaldosteronism can lead to increased potassium retention, which can be problematic for individuals with heart failure. Limiting intake of high potassium foods is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a condition that can worsen heart failure. Therefore, advising the client to limit high potassium foods is essential in managing hyperaldosteronism in the setting of heart failure.

3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed lurasidone. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. When a client is prescribed lurasidone, monitoring for weight gain is essential as lurasidone can cause this side effect. Patients on lurasidone should have their weight monitored regularly to detect any changes that may occur. Options B, C, and D are not typically associated with lurasidone use, making them less likely to be a direct side effect of this medication.

4. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?

• A. It reduces the production of angiotensin II.
• B. It increases the production of angiotensin II.
• C. It causes increased production of bradykinin.
• D. It increases the production of aldosterone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.

5. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Bone marrow suppression
• B. Increased risk of infection
• C. Liver toxicity
• D. Kidney stones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone marrow suppression. Methotrexate, commonly used in rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, reducing the production of blood cells and increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia is crucial to detect bone marrow suppression early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while methotrexate can increase the risk of infection, liver toxicity, and kidney issues, the primary concern and most significant adverse effect to monitor for is bone marrow suppression due to its impact on blood cell production.

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