HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Hair loss
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain as a common side effect. This weight gain can increase the risk of metabolic issues such as diabetes and dyslipidemia. Monitoring the client's weight regularly is essential to detect and address any weight changes promptly.
2. A client is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect of this medication?
- A. Nausea and vomiting
- B. Bleeding or bruising
- C. Gastrointestinal bleeding
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects related to bleeding due to its antiplatelet effect. Gastrointestinal bleeding is a severe side effect associated with clopidogrel use. Monitoring for signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, such as black, tarry stools or vomiting blood, is essential to prevent serious complications.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Report any signs of lactic acidosis to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals. Taking metformin with meals helps to minimize gastrointestinal side effects, which are common with this medication. Choice B, avoiding alcohol, is a good practice due to the increased risk of lactic acidosis when alcohol is consumed with metformin; however, it is not the priority teaching point in this scenario. Taking metformin on an empty stomach (Choice C) is incorrect because it can increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Reporting signs of lactic acidosis (Choice D) is important, but it is more related to monitoring for adverse effects rather than a primary teaching point for administration.
4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Headache
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed cinacalcet. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypocalcemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyperphosphatemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Cinacalcet is a medication that can lower calcium levels, leading to hypocalcemia. Monitoring for signs of low calcium levels such as muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and abnormal heart rhythms is crucial to prevent complications in clients with chronic kidney disease.\nIncorrect Choices Rationale: B) Hypercalcemia is the opposite effect of cinacalcet; C) Hyperkalemia and D) Hyperphosphatemia are not typically associated with cinacalcet use.
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