Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, causing hyperkalemia. This medication inhibits the action of aldosterone, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, especially in clients with heart failure.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed doxazosin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Doxazosin is an alpha-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the potential side effects of doxazosin is causing a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to hypotension. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of low blood pressure when initiating or adjusting the dose of doxazosin.

3. What class of laxative would the nurse recommend to a patient asking about the best way to prevent constipation?

• A. Stimulant laxatives
• B. Bulk-forming laxatives
• C. Emollient laxatives
• D. Hyperosmotic laxatives

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bulk-forming laxatives. These laxatives are recommended to prevent constipation because they work by absorbing liquid in the intestines, forming a bulky, soft stool that is easier to pass. They are safe and considered the most natural option. Stimulant laxatives (choice A) work by promoting bowel movements through intestinal contractions and are more suitable for treating occasional constipation rather than preventing it. Emollient laxatives (choice C) soften the stool by increasing the incorporation of water into the feces and are more suitable for patients who need to avoid straining during defecation. Hyperosmotic laxatives (choice D) work by drawing water into the intestine through osmosis and are typically used for more severe cases of constipation, not for prevention.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate, the nurse must monitor for hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia. Calcium acetate can increase calcium levels in the blood, leading to hypercalcemia. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include fatigue, confusion, constipation, and muscle weakness. Regular monitoring of calcium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with elevated calcium levels.

5. A client with pulmonary tuberculosis has been taking rifampin for 3 weeks. The client reports orange urine. What should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Notify the client's health care provider.
• B. Inform the client that this is not harmful.
• C. Assess the client for other signs of nephrotoxicity.
• D. Monitor the client's most recent creatinine level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client reports orange urine after taking rifampin is to inform the client that this change is not harmful. Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of urine, which is a harmless side effect. There is no need to notify the health care provider as this is an expected outcome. Monitoring creatinine levels or assessing for nephrotoxicity is unnecessary in this situation, as rifampin does not typically cause kidney damage.

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