a client with a history of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, causing hyperkalemia. This medication inhibits the action of aldosterone, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, especially in clients with heart failure.

2. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed oxcarbazepine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyponatremia. Oxcarbazepine, an anticonvulsant used in bipolar disorder, can lead to hyponatremia. This is because it can cause the body to retain water, leading to a dilution of sodium levels in the blood. Monitoring sodium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as confusion, seizures, and even coma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Agranulocytosis is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Liver toxicity is a potential adverse effect of some medications but not commonly seen with oxcarbazepine. While weight gain can be a side effect of certain medications used in bipolar disorder treatment, it is not a common adverse effect of oxcarbazepine.

3. The practical nurse administered 15 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously to a client before they consumed their breakfast at 7:30 AM. At what time is the client at an increased risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: NPH insulin, an intermediate-acting type, peaks approximately 8 to 12 hours after subcutaneous administration. Considering this, the client is most likely to experience a hypoglycemic reaction between 3:30 and 7:30 PM, making option B the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they fall outside the peak time for a hypoglycemic reaction after administering NPH insulin.

4. A healthy 68-year-old client asks the practical nurse (PN) whether they should take the pneumococcal vaccine. Which statement should the PN offer to the client that provides the most accurate information about this vaccine?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is usually recommended that children younger than 2 years old and adults 65 years or older get vaccinated against pneumococcal disease. This is because these age groups are more susceptible to severe complications from the infection. While the vaccine may be recommended for certain individuals with specific medical conditions at any age, the primary target groups are as mentioned in option B. Option A is incorrect as the pneumococcal vaccine is not given annually like the flu vaccine. Option C is incorrect because the vaccine is not primarily for travelers but for certain age groups and individuals with medical conditions at risk. Option D is incorrect as the vaccine's duration of protection can vary, and it is not guaranteed to prevent pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.

5. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, which is a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage bradycardia promptly.

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