HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. The healthcare provider has administered albuterol as an inhaled medication. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which possible adverse reaction?
- A. Enuresis
- B. Lethargy
- C. Depression
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator in the adrenergic category. Its actions and adverse effects are similar to adrenaline or epinephrine. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for tachycardia, which is a common adverse effect of albuterol due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors. Enuresis, or night bed-wetting, is not an adverse effect associated with albuterol. Additionally, the client should be monitored for anxiety as a potential adverse effect, not lethargy or depression, which are not typically associated with albuterol administration.
2. A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium. Which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth and increased thirst
- C. Tremors and polyuria
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client taking lithium, dry mouth and increased thirst are indicators of potential adverse effects. Lithium can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, causing polyuria and subsequent increased thirst due to impaired water reabsorption in the kidneys. Tremors can also be a sign of lithium toxicity. Monitoring and recognizing these symptoms are crucial in managing lithium therapy and preventing further complications.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sucroferric oxyhydroxide. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Constipation
- C. Nausea
- D. Hyperphosphatemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Sucroferric oxyhydroxide is known to cause diarrhea as a side effect. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of diarrhea while on this medication to ensure timely intervention and management.
4. What side effect is a male client likely to experience while receiving furosemide 40mg by mouth?
- A. Difficulty starting urination
- B. Nosebleeds
- C. Muscle cramps
- D. Visual disturbances
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle cramps are a common side effect of furosemide due to its impact on electrolyte levels, especially potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, resulting in muscle cramps as one of the manifestations of electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Difficulty starting urination is not a common side effect of furosemide; nosebleeds and visual disturbances are not typically associated with this medication.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed albuterol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Nausea
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Albuterol, a bronchodilator commonly used in COPD, can cause tachycardia as a potential side effect due to its beta-agonist properties that can stimulate the heart. Nausea (Choice B), dry mouth (Choice C), and weight gain (Choice D) are less likely associated with albuterol use. Nausea and dry mouth are not common side effects of albuterol, and weight gain is not typically linked to its use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor for tachycardia when a client is prescribed albuterol for COPD.
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