HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. The healthcare provider has administered albuterol as an inhaled medication. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which possible adverse reaction?
- A. Enuresis
- B. Lethargy
- C. Depression
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator in the adrenergic category. Its actions and adverse effects are similar to adrenaline or epinephrine. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for tachycardia, which is a common adverse effect of albuterol due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors. Enuresis, or night bed-wetting, is not an adverse effect associated with albuterol. Additionally, the client should be monitored for anxiety as a potential adverse effect, not lethargy or depression, which are not typically associated with albuterol administration.
2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed enoxaparin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. One of the potential adverse effects of enoxaparin is an increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications.
3. What side effect is a male client likely to experience while receiving furosemide 40mg by mouth?
- A. Difficulty starting urination
- B. Nosebleeds
- C. Muscle cramps
- D. Visual disturbances
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle cramps are a common side effect of furosemide due to its impact on electrolyte levels, especially potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, resulting in muscle cramps as one of the manifestations of electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Difficulty starting urination is not a common side effect of furosemide; nosebleeds and visual disturbances are not typically associated with this medication.
4. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed aripiprazole. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Headache
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Aripiprazole is known to cause weight gain in patients, so monitoring for changes in weight is essential to assess for this potential side effect and intervene accordingly.
5. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Insomnia
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as a potential side effect. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic changes that can lead to weight gain, making it crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the client's weight during treatment. This side effect is significant as it can impact the client's overall health and well-being, so early detection and intervention are essential to manage it effectively.
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