HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. The healthcare provider has administered albuterol as an inhaled medication. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which possible adverse reaction?
- A. Enuresis
- B. Lethargy
- C. Depression
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator in the adrenergic category. Its actions and adverse effects are similar to adrenaline or epinephrine. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for tachycardia, which is a common adverse effect of albuterol due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors. Enuresis, or night bed-wetting, is not an adverse effect associated with albuterol. Additionally, the client should be monitored for anxiety as a potential adverse effect, not lethargy or depression, which are not typically associated with albuterol administration.
2. Twenty-four hours after starting to take oral penicillin for strep throat, a client calls the nurse to report the onset of a rash on the chest. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the client to discontinue the penicillin immediately
- B. Instruct the client regarding the use of topical analgesic cream PRN
- C. Question the client about any other related symptoms
- D. Reinforce the need to take all doses of the penicillin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client has developed a rash after starting oral penicillin, which can indicate an allergic reaction. It is crucial for the nurse to instruct the client to discontinue the penicillin immediately. Continuing the medication can potentially lead to severe allergic reactions. Instructing about topical analgesic cream or questioning about other related symptoms may delay appropriate action in case of a severe allergic reaction. Reinforcing the need to complete all doses is not appropriate when an allergic reaction is suspected, as safety takes precedence over completing the antibiotic course.
3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Hair loss
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain as a common side effect. This weight gain can increase the risk of metabolic issues such as diabetes and dyslipidemia. Monitoring the client's weight regularly is essential to detect and address any weight changes promptly.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer, the nurse should monitor for hypocalcemia. Sevelamer works by binding dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially cause hypocalcemia.
5. A client with an exacerbation of asthma is prescribed albuterol. The nurse should assess the client for which common side effect of this medication?
- A. Tremors
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Insomnia
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tremors. Albuterol, a beta-agonist medication commonly used to treat asthma exacerbations, can lead to tremors as a side effect. Tremors result from the stimulation of beta-2 receptors in muscles, particularly in the hands. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are generally not common side effects of albuterol. Insomnia (Choice C) is less likely to occur with albuterol, as it is a stimulant and can cause alertness rather than sleep disturbances. Dry mouth (Choice D) is not a typical side effect associated with albuterol use.
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