Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Weight gain
• C. Headache
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by decreasing the blood's ability to clot. One of the significant side effects of apixaban is an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in the urine or stool, or unusual bleeding or bruising. Monitoring for these signs is crucial to prevent or manage any potential complications associated with the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, headache, and nausea are not typically associated with apixaban use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring for signs of bleeding in a client prescribed apixaban.

2. A client is prescribed amitriptyline for depression. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Weight loss
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Increased appetite.' Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is known to commonly cause increased appetite, leading to weight gain. Monitoring for increased appetite is crucial as it can impact the client's overall health and well-being. Choice A, 'Insomnia,' is less likely as amitriptyline is more associated with sedative effects. Choice B, 'Weight loss,' is incorrect as weight gain is a more common side effect. Choice C, 'Dry mouth,' is a potential side effect of amitriptyline, but it is not directly related to increased appetite, which is the primary concern in this case.

3. A client with asthma is prescribed montelukast. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication is used for which purpose?

• A. Immediate relief of acute asthma attacks
• B. Long-term control of asthma symptoms
• C. Treatment of exercise-induced bronchospasm
• D. Immediate relief of allergic rhinitis symptoms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for the long-term control of asthma symptoms by reducing inflammation in the airways. It is not typically used for immediate relief during acute asthma attacks, where short-acting bronchodilators are more appropriate. Montelukast does not specifically target exercise-induced bronchospasm or allergic rhinitis symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A is incorrect because montelukast is not for immediate relief of acute asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect as montelukast is not primarily used to treat exercise-induced bronchospasm. Choice D is incorrect because montelukast is not indicated for immediate relief of allergic rhinitis symptoms.

4. A client vomits 30 minutes after receiving a dose of hydromorphone on the first postoperative day. What initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

• A. Obtain a prescription for nasogastric intubation.
• B. Administer a prn dose of ondansetron.
• C. Reduce the next scheduled dose of hydromorphone.
• D. Assess the client's abdomen and bowel sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's vomiting is likely due to the hydromorphone administration, indicating a need for an antiemetic such as ondansetron to address the nausea. Nasogastric intubation (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the client is vomiting, not experiencing an obstruction. While reducing the dose of hydromorphone (Choice C) may be considered later, the immediate focus should be managing the client's symptoms. Assessing the client's abdomen and bowel sounds (Choice D) can be important but is not the initial priority when addressing the vomiting post hydromorphone administration.

5. A client with asthma is prescribed fluticasone. The nurse should instruct the client to use this medication at which time?

• A. During an asthma attack
• B. Twice a day
• C. Once a day
• D. At night before bed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fluticasone is a maintenance medication for asthma aimed at controlling symptoms. It should be taken once a day on a regular basis to provide ongoing relief and prevent asthma symptoms, rather than being used to treat acute asthma attacks. Therefore, the correct answer is to use it once a day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because using fluticasone during an asthma attack, twice a day, or only at night before bed does not align with the medication's purpose of being a daily maintenance therapy.

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