Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Weight gain
• C. Headache
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by decreasing the blood's ability to clot. One of the significant side effects of apixaban is an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in the urine or stool, or unusual bleeding or bruising. Monitoring for these signs is crucial to prevent or manage any potential complications associated with the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, headache, and nausea are not typically associated with apixaban use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring for signs of bleeding in a client prescribed apixaban.

2. A client is prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. The practical nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Store the tablets in a cool, dry place.
• B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes until pain is relieved, up to three tablets.
• C. Swallow the tablets whole.
• D. Chew the tablets for faster relief.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are sensitive to heat and moisture, so they should be stored in a cool, dry place to maintain their efficacy. Storing them in a cool, dry place helps prevent degradation of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin tablets should be taken as directed by the healthcare provider to avoid potential overdose or adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect because sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue to dissolve and be absorbed, not swallowed, to ensure their quick action. Choice D is incorrect because sublingual tablets should not be chewed; they are meant to be absorbed through the tissues under the tongue, and chewing them may alter their effectiveness.

3. A client who received a renal transplant three months ago is readmitted to the acute care unit with signs of graft rejection. While taking the client's history, the nurse determines the client has been self-administering St. John's wort, an herbal preparation, on the advice of a friend. What information is most significant about this finding?

• A. Wort can decrease plasma concentration of Cyclospora
• B. Wort can decrease plasma concentration of Tacrolimus
• C. Wort can decrease plasma concentration of Cyclosporine
• D. Wort can decrease plasma concentration of Mycophenolate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most significant information about the client self-administering St. John's wort, an herbal preparation, is that it can decrease the plasma concentration of Cyclosporine. St. John's wort is known to reduce the efficacy of Cyclosporine, which is a common immunosuppressant drug used to prevent transplant rejection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because St. John's wort does not affect the plasma concentration of Cyclospora, Tacrolimus, or Mycophenolate.

4. A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of furosemide to a client. Which laboratory value is most important for the PN to review before administering the medication?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Serum sodium level
• D. Serum magnesium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the client's serum potassium level before administering furosemide. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, making it crucial to assess potassium levels to prevent potential complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.

5. A client with pulmonary tuberculosis has been taking rifampin for 3 weeks. The client reports orange urine. What should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Notify the client's health care provider.
• B. Inform the client that this is not harmful.
• C. Assess the client for other signs of nephrotoxicity.
• D. Monitor the client's most recent creatinine level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client reports orange urine after taking rifampin is to inform the client that this change is not harmful. Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of urine, which is a harmless side effect. There is no need to notify the health care provider as this is an expected outcome. Monitoring creatinine levels or assessing for nephrotoxicity is unnecessary in this situation, as rifampin does not typically cause kidney damage.

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