a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by decreasing the blood's ability to clot. One of the significant side effects of apixaban is an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in the urine or stool, or unusual bleeding or bruising. Monitoring for these signs is crucial to prevent or manage any potential complications associated with the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, headache, and nausea are not typically associated with apixaban use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring for signs of bleeding in a client prescribed apixaban.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. It is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for this adverse reaction as it may lead to discontinuation of the medication. Dizziness, hyperkalemia, and hyponatremia are not typically associated with lisinopril use. Dizziness is more commonly seen with antihypertensives that cause orthostatic hypotension. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia are not usually linked to lisinopril use.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any signs of heart failure when taking pioglitazone. Pioglitazone is known to potentially exacerbate heart failure, so it is crucial for clients to monitor and report any symptoms of heart failure promptly to their healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices B and C are important but not specific to pioglitazone use. Choice D is incorrect as bladder cancer is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.

4. A client with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate. The practical nurse (PN) should reinforce which instruction regarding the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for administering alendronate is to take the medication with a full glass of water before breakfast. This timing is crucial to ensure proper absorption in the body and reduce the risk of esophageal irritation. Taking it immediately after a meal or lying down for 30 minutes after may affect absorption and increase the risk of adverse effects. It should not be crushed or mixed with food to maintain its effectiveness.

5. A client has been taking simvastatin for 3 days and calls the nurse at the clinic to report extreme muscle tenderness and pain. Which is the most appropriate action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Extreme muscle tenderness and pain in a client taking simvastatin could indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious condition. Promptly notifying the health care provider is crucial to evaluate and manage this potential medical emergency. Reviewing the medication with the client may not address the urgency of the situation. Advising the client to avoid grapefruit juice is not directly related to the client's current symptoms. Reminding the client to limit physical activity until evaluated by the health care provider is not appropriate as the client's symptoms should be assessed by a professional first.

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