HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis self-administers beta-1 interferon subcutaneously
- A. Explain to the client that the medication dose may need to be increased
- B. Instruct the client to withhold the drug until the next exacerbation
- C. Advise the client to consult the healthcare provider as soon as possible
- D. Encourage the client to continue taking the medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to continue taking the medication is crucial in the management of multiple sclerosis. Beta-1 interferon is a disease-modifying drug used to reduce the frequency and severity of relapses in multiple sclerosis. Discontinuing the medication without medical advice can lead to disease exacerbation. It is essential for the client to maintain regular dosing to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and disease control.
2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed dulaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Pancreatitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nausea.' Dulaglutide, a medication commonly used in the management of type 2 diabetes, can lead to gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are potential concerns in diabetes management, they are not typically associated with dulaglutide use. Pancreatitis is a serious adverse effect of some diabetes medications, but it is not a common side effect of dulaglutide.
3. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Hair loss
- C. Insomnia
- D. Tremors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder is prescribed quetiapine, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as a potential adverse effect. Quetiapine is known to commonly cause weight gain, which can have implications for the client's overall health. Regular monitoring of weight can help in early detection and management of this side effect.
4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Nausea
- D. Vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, can lead to toxicity manifesting as various cardiac dysrhythmias, with bradycardia being a notable indicator. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial as it can indicate the need for dosage adjustment or discontinuation of digoxin to prevent adverse effects. Tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity, making them incorrect choices for monitoring in a client receiving this medication.
5. Which assessment finding requires nursing intervention prior to the administration of medication?
- A. Apical pulse heard best at the pulmonic site
- B. Irregular apical pulse rhythm
- C. Presence of a systolic heart murmur
- D. Apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute indicates bradycardia, a heart rate below the normal range, which requires immediate nursing intervention before administering medication to address the potential impact of the bradycardia on the patient's overall condition.
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