Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis self-administers beta-1 interferon subcutaneously

• A. Explain to the client that the medication dose may need to be increased
• B. Instruct the client to withhold the drug until the next exacerbation
• C. Advise the client to consult the healthcare provider as soon as possible
• D. Encourage the client to continue taking the medication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to continue taking the medication is crucial in the management of multiple sclerosis. Beta-1 interferon is a disease-modifying drug used to reduce the frequency and severity of relapses in multiple sclerosis. Discontinuing the medication without medical advice can lead to disease exacerbation. It is essential for the client to maintain regular dosing to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and disease control.

2. The practical nurse (PN) is obtaining the medical history of a client starting a new prescription for conjugated estrogens PO daily. Which medical condition is not treated by this medication?

• A. Menopausal symptoms
• B. Prostatic cancer
• C. Thromboembolic diseases
• D. Abnormal uterine bleeding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Conjugated estrogens, such as Premarin, are not used in the treatment of thromboembolic diseases. These medications are contraindicated in conditions predisposing to thromboembolic diseases due to their association with an increased risk of thromboembolism, stroke, pulmonary embolism, and myocardial infarction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because conjugated estrogens are commonly prescribed for managing menopausal symptoms, abnormal uterine bleeding, and certain hormone-responsive cancers, but not for thromboembolic diseases.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.

4. A client with asthma is prescribed montelukast. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication is used for which purpose?

• A. Immediate relief of acute asthma attacks
• B. Long-term control of asthma symptoms
• C. Treatment of exercise-induced bronchospasm
• D. Immediate relief of allergic rhinitis symptoms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for the long-term control of asthma symptoms by reducing inflammation in the airways. It is not typically used for immediate relief during acute asthma attacks, where short-acting bronchodilators are more appropriate. Montelukast does not specifically target exercise-induced bronchospasm or allergic rhinitis symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A is incorrect because montelukast is not for immediate relief of acute asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect as montelukast is not primarily used to treat exercise-induced bronchospasm. Choice D is incorrect because montelukast is not indicated for immediate relief of allergic rhinitis symptoms.

5. The client is receiving vancomycin, and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine... the best timing for these levels?

• A. Midway through administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
• B. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
• C. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next
• D. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To accurately determine peak and trough levels of vancomycin, blood should be drawn two hours after the completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next dose. This timing allows for appropriate assessment of the drug levels in the body, ensuring accurate monitoring of therapeutic and toxic concentrations. Choice A is incorrect as drawing blood midway through administration does not provide an accurate peak level. Choice C is incorrect as drawing blood one hour before the next dose does not represent the trough level. Choice D is incorrect because drawing blood immediately after completion of the IV dose does not allow enough time for the drug to reach peak levels.

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