HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis self-administers beta-1 interferon subcutaneously
- A. Explain to the client that the medication dose may need to be increased
- B. Instruct the client to withhold the drug until the next exacerbation
- C. Advise the client to consult the healthcare provider as soon as possible
- D. Encourage the client to continue taking the medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to continue taking the medication is crucial in the management of multiple sclerosis. Beta-1 interferon is a disease-modifying drug used to reduce the frequency and severity of relapses in multiple sclerosis. Discontinuing the medication without medical advice can lead to disease exacerbation. It is essential for the client to maintain regular dosing to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and disease control.
2. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Agranulocytosis
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Weight gain
- D. Hypersalivation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Clozapine is known to potentially cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and hypersalivation are not typically associated with clozapine use. While dry mouth can be a common side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not specifically linked to clozapine. Weight gain can occur with certain antipsychotics, but clozapine is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects. Hypersalivation is not a common side effect of clozapine.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Headache
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia due to its effect on slowing down the heart rate, which can be dangerous in a client with atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because digoxin is not known to cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.
4. When a client with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose, which parameter is essential to monitor for a response to the drug?
- A. Serum hepatic enzymes
- B. Fingerstick glucose
- C. Stool color and character
- D. Serum electrolytes and ammonia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In hepatic encephalopathy, the goal of lactulose therapy is to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting its excretion in the stool. Therefore, monitoring serum electrolytes and ammonia levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose in lowering ammonia levels and improving the client's condition. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because serum hepatic enzymes, fingerstick glucose, and stool color/character are not directly related to monitoring the response to lactulose therapy in hepatic encephalopathy.
5. A client with pulmonary tuberculosis has been taking rifampin for 3 weeks. The client reports orange urine. What should be the nurse's next action?
- A. Notify the client's health care provider.
- B. Inform the client that this is not harmful.
- C. Assess the client for other signs of nephrotoxicity.
- D. Monitor the client's most recent creatinine level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client reports orange urine after taking rifampin is to inform the client that this change is not harmful. Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of urine, which is a harmless side effect. There is no need to notify the health care provider as this is an expected outcome. Monitoring creatinine levels or assessing for nephrotoxicity is unnecessary in this situation, as rifampin does not typically cause kidney damage.
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