HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client is prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Avoid drinking alcohol
- B. Take with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset
- C. Increase fluid intake
- D. Take medication with grapefruit juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms is to avoid drinking alcohol. Diazepam can cause drowsiness and enhance the effects of alcohol, leading to increased sedation and impaired cognitive function. Clients should be advised to avoid alcohol consumption while taking diazepam to prevent these adverse effects and ensure their safety.
2. A female client who started chemotherapy three days ago for cancer of the breast calls the clinic reporting that she is so upset she cannot sleep. The client has several PRN medications available. Which drug should the nurse instruct her to take?
- A. Ondansetron 8mgPO no
- B. Lorazepam 2mg PO bedtime
- C. Oxycodone, acetylsalicylic acid one tablet q4 hours PRN
- D. Acetaminophen, diphenhydramine 2 capsules bedtime
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acetaminophen and diphenhydramine help with sleep without severe side effects.
3. An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with iron supplements, which information should the nurse include in the discharge?
- A. Take the tablet with a daily multivitamin
- B. Crush the tablet and mix it with pudding
- C. Bedtime is the best time to take the tablet
- D. Wait 2 hours after meals to take the tablet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to wait 2 hours after meals before taking the iron tablet. This is important to ensure better absorption and efficacy of the iron supplement. Taking the tablet with a daily multivitamin (Choice A) may interfere with iron absorption due to interactions with other minerals. Crushing the tablet and mixing it with pudding (Choice B) can alter the effectiveness of the medication. While bedtime (Choice C) may be convenient, waiting after meals is crucial for optimal iron absorption.
4. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker medication used to treat hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, and one common adverse effect is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atenolol typically does not cause tachycardia, hypotension, or hyperglycemia as primary side effects. Instead, bradycardia is a common concern due to the drug's mechanism of action in reducing heart rate.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing the effectiveness of the drug amiodarone. Which client statement best indicates that the drug has been effective?
- A. I have not had as many spells of angina.
- B. I have not had as much swelling in my ankles lately.
- C. My doctor told me my cholesterol levels were improving with each visit.
- D. I do not notice as many irregular heartbeats as before I started taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is option D. The effectiveness of amiodarone is best assessed by a reduction in irregular heartbeats since it is primarily used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias. This drug's main purpose is to control irregular heart rhythms, so a decrease in irregular heartbeats indicates its effectiveness. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because amiodarone is not primarily used to address angina, ankle swelling, or cholesterol levels, so improvements in these areas do not directly reflect the drug's effectiveness.
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