Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed metoprolol. The nurse should monitor for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fatigue
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dizziness. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to dizziness as a common side effect due to its mechanism of action in reducing heart rate and blood pressure. This effect can cause a sensation of lightheadedness or unsteadiness, particularly when standing up quickly. While fatigue, orthostatic hypotension, and headache are potential side effects of metoprolol, dizziness is commonly observed and should be closely monitored by the nurse to ensure patient safety.

2. A client diagnosed with seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which medication instruction should the practical nurse (PN) reinforce to this client?

• A. Maintain consistent sodium intake.
• B. Use sunscreen when outdoors.
• C. Return for monthly urinalysis.
• D. Brush and floss teeth daily.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to reinforce the instruction to brush and floss teeth daily. Phenytoin therapy can lead to gingival hyperplasia (gum disease), which can be prevented by maintaining good oral hygiene practices such as brushing and flossing daily. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not directly related to the side effects or management of phenytoin therapy. Maintaining consistent sodium intake is not a specific concern with phenytoin. Using sunscreen when outdoors is important to prevent sunburn but is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Returning for monthly urinalysis may be necessary for other medications, but it is not specifically required for monitoring phenytoin therapy.

3. A client vomits 30 minutes after receiving a dose of hydromorphone on the first postoperative day. What initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

• A. Obtain a prescription for nasogastric intubation.
• B. Administer a prn dose of ondansetron.
• C. Reduce the next scheduled dose of hydromorphone.
• D. Assess the client's abdomen and bowel sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's vomiting is likely due to the hydromorphone administration, indicating a need for an antiemetic such as ondansetron to address the nausea. Nasogastric intubation (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the client is vomiting, not experiencing an obstruction. While reducing the dose of hydromorphone (Choice C) may be considered later, the immediate focus should be managing the client's symptoms. Assessing the client's abdomen and bowel sounds (Choice D) can be important but is not the initial priority when addressing the vomiting post hydromorphone administration.

4. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, causing hyperkalemia. This medication inhibits the action of aldosterone, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, especially in clients with heart failure.

5. A client who takes metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is nothing by mouth (NPO) for surgery. What pre-op prescription should the practical nurse (PN) anticipate for this client's glucose management?

• A. NPO except for metformin and regular snacks
• B. NPO except for oral antidiabetic agent
• C. Novolin-N insulin subcutaneously twice daily
• D. Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client taking metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is NPO for surgery, it is crucial to manage their glucose levels effectively. The best approach in this situation is to prescribe regular insulin subcutaneously according to a sliding scale based on the client's blood glucose levels. This method allows for precise adjustment of insulin doses to maintain blood glucose within the target range while the client is unable to take oral medications. Choices A and B are incorrect because metformin is typically held when a client is NPO, and oral antidiabetic agents may not provide sufficient glucose control. Choice C is incorrect as Novolin-N insulin given twice daily may not offer the flexibility needed for glucose management in a surgical setting where the client's intake is restricted.

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