Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.

2. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, resulting in hyperkalemia. This side effect is important to monitor in clients taking spironolactone, especially those with chronic heart failure, as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed darbepoetin alfa. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Darbepoetin alfa, used to treat anemia in chronic kidney disease, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication stimulates red blood cell production, which can increase blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is crucial to detect and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, hyperkalemia, and hyperglycemia are not commonly associated with darbepoetin alfa therapy in chronic kidney disease.

4. The practical nurse administered 15 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously to a client before they consumed their breakfast at 7:30 AM. At what time is the client at an increased risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?

• A. 8:30 to 11:30 AM
• B. 3:30 to 7:30 PM
• C. 9:30 PM to midnight
• D. 1:00 to 5:00 AM

Correct answer: B

Rationale: NPH insulin, an intermediate-acting type, peaks approximately 8 to 12 hours after subcutaneous administration. Considering this, the client is most likely to experience a hypoglycemic reaction between 3:30 and 7:30 PM, making option B the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they fall outside the peak time for a hypoglycemic reaction after administering NPH insulin.

5. What should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine for a male client with bipolar disorder?

• A. Complete blood count
• B. Family history of hypertension
• C. History of erectile dysfunction
• D. Baseline weight

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Baseline weight should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine in a male client with bipolar disorder to monitor for potential weight gain associated with the medication. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain and monitoring the baseline weight can help in assessing any changes during treatment.

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