Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly associated with causing peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it may indicate a need for dosage adjustment or further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as amlodipine is not known to cause tachycardia, bradycardia, or increased appetite as adverse effects.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed sitagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Pancreatitis
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sitagliptin, a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor used in type 2 diabetes, has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. While hypoglycemia is a potential adverse effect of some diabetes medications, it is less common with sitagliptin. Hyperglycemia is the condition being treated and is not an expected adverse effect of sitagliptin.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker medication used to treat hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, and one common adverse effect is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atenolol typically does not cause tachycardia, hypotension, or hyperglycemia as primary side effects. Instead, bradycardia is a common concern due to the drug's mechanism of action in reducing heart rate.

4. A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia as a potential side effect. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, hence monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications related to hypokalemia.

5. What is the primary nursing intervention that the practical nurse should perform before administering ampicillin to a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection?

• A. Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen.
• B. Assess the urine pH for acidity.
• C. Insert an indwelling catheter.
• D. Assess for complaints of dysuria.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a clean-catch urine specimen. Before administering ampicillin to a client with a urinary tract infection, it is crucial to collect a urine specimen to determine the causative organism and evaluate the effectiveness of pharmacological therapy. Assessing the urine pH for acidity (choice B) is not the primary intervention needed before administering ampicillin. Inserting an indwelling catheter (choice C) is invasive and not necessary unless indicated for specific reasons. Assessing for complaints of dysuria (choice D) is important but does not take precedence over obtaining a urine specimen for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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