HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly associated with causing peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it may indicate a need for dosage adjustment or further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as amlodipine is not known to cause tachycardia, bradycardia, or increased appetite as adverse effects.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, which is a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage bradycardia promptly.
3. The practical nurse administers lactulose to a client. Which client outcome would indicate a therapeutic response?
- A. An increase in urine output
- B. Two to three soft stools per day
- C. Absence of nausea
- D. Decreased serum potassium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Lactulose is a type of laxative that works by preventing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, leading to increased water absorption in the stool and softening of the stool. The therapeutic response to lactulose is indicated by the passage of two to three soft stools per day, showing that the medication is effectively promoting bowel movements.
4. A client has been taking simvastatin for 3 days and calls the nurse at the clinic to report extreme muscle tenderness and pain. Which is the most appropriate action?
- A. Notify the health care provider.
- B. Review the medication with the client.
- C. Advise the client to avoid grapefruit juice.
- D. Remind the client to limit physical activity until evaluated by the health care provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Extreme muscle tenderness and pain in a client taking simvastatin could indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious condition. Promptly notifying the health care provider is crucial to evaluate and manage this potential medical emergency. Reviewing the medication with the client may not address the urgency of the situation. Advising the client to avoid grapefruit juice is not directly related to the client's current symptoms. Reminding the client to limit physical activity until evaluated by the health care provider is not appropriate as the client's symptoms should be assessed by a professional first.
5. A client with severe depression is prescribed sertraline. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
- B. It may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
- C. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients should not stop taking sertraline abruptly once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider. It is important to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed to prevent a relapse of symptoms. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and may worsen the condition. Choice B is correct because sertraline may take 1 to 4 weeks to show noticeable improvement in symptoms. Choice C is correct as alcohol should be avoided while taking sertraline due to the increased risk of side effects. Choice D is also correct as taking sertraline in the morning with food can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects.
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