a client is prescribed verapamil for hypertension the nurse should monitor the client for which common adverse effect
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI Practice

1. A client is prescribed verapamil for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which common adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker commonly used for hypertension, is known to cause constipation as a frequent adverse effect. This occurs due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased motility. Headache, muscle cramping, and fatigue are not typically associated with verapamil use and are less common side effects. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for symptoms of constipation when administering verapamil.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed semaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Semaglutide, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes, is known to cause nausea as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for gastrointestinal symptoms, including nausea, after initiating treatment with semaglutide. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are common concerns in diabetes management, they are not the primary adverse effects associated with semaglutide. Pancreatitis is a serious but rare adverse effect of GLP-1 receptor agonists like semaglutide, which should also be monitored for, but nausea is a more common and immediate concern.

3. How do you determine if the medication is effective for a client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. To assess the effectiveness of medication for anemia in a client with CKD, monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial. Hemoglobin levels directly indicate the response to treatment and improvement in the condition. An increase in hemoglobin level to 12 grams/dL suggests that the medication is effectively addressing the anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased consumption of iron-rich foods, reports of increased energy levels and decreased fatigue, and tolerance to concurrent iron therapy without adverse effects are not direct indicators of the medication's effectiveness in treating anemia secondary to CKD.

4. A client with heart failure develops hyperaldosteronism. What dietary recommendation is essential for managing this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperaldosteronism can lead to increased potassium retention, which can be problematic for individuals with heart failure. Limiting intake of high potassium foods is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a condition that can worsen heart failure. Therefore, advising the client to limit high potassium foods is essential in managing hyperaldosteronism in the setting of heart failure.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythropoietin is a medication commonly used to stimulate red blood cell production in individuals with chronic kidney disease. One of the potential adverse effects of erythropoietin therapy is hypertension. The increased production of red blood cells can lead to elevated blood pressure levels. Therefore, monitoring for hypertension is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with erythropoietin therapy. Hypertension is the primary adverse effect to monitor in this case.

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