Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed verapamil for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which common adverse effect?

• A. Constipation
• B. Headache
• C. Muscle cramping
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker commonly used for hypertension, is known to cause constipation as a frequent adverse effect. This occurs due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased motility. Headache, muscle cramping, and fatigue are not typically associated with verapamil use and are less common side effects. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for symptoms of constipation when administering verapamil.

2. A client diagnosed with seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which medication instruction should the practical nurse (PN) reinforce to this client?

• A. Maintain consistent sodium intake.
• B. Use sunscreen when outdoors.
• C. Return for monthly urinalysis.
• D. Brush and floss teeth daily.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to reinforce the instruction to brush and floss teeth daily. Phenytoin therapy can lead to gingival hyperplasia (gum disease), which can be prevented by maintaining good oral hygiene practices such as brushing and flossing daily. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not directly related to the side effects or management of phenytoin therapy. Maintaining consistent sodium intake is not a specific concern with phenytoin. Using sunscreen when outdoors is important to prevent sunburn but is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Returning for monthly urinalysis may be necessary for other medications, but it is not specifically required for monitoring phenytoin therapy.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because apixaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern when administering apixaban is monitoring for potential bleeding complications.

4. A practical nurse (PN) is reviewing teaching with the client and/or significant others about the concurrent use of benztropine and olanzapine to manage psychotic behavior. What information should the PN reinforce?

• A. Benztropine will reduce olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention.
• B. Benztropine potentiates the effect of olanzapine.
• C. Benztropine is used to control the side effects of olanzapine.
• D. The combined effect of these drugs will modify psychotic behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because benztropine, an anticholinergic drug, is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms associated with olanzapine use. Choice A is incorrect because benztropine does not directly reduce olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention. Choice B is incorrect as benztropine does not potentiate the effect of olanzapine; its main role is to counteract extrapyramidal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because the primary purpose of using benztropine alongside olanzapine is to manage side effects, not specifically to modify psychotic behavior.

5. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Hypersalivation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Clozapine is known to potentially cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and hypersalivation are not typically associated with clozapine use. While dry mouth can be a common side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not specifically linked to clozapine. Weight gain can occur with certain antipsychotics, but clozapine is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects. Hypersalivation is not a common side effect of clozapine.

Similar Questions