Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed verapamil for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which common adverse effect?

• A. Constipation
• B. Headache
• C. Muscle cramping
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker commonly used for hypertension, is known to cause constipation as a frequent adverse effect. This occurs due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased motility. Headache, muscle cramping, and fatigue are not typically associated with verapamil use and are less common side effects. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for symptoms of constipation when administering verapamil.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Bruising
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.

3. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, resulting in hyperkalemia. This side effect is important to monitor in clients taking spironolactone, especially those with chronic heart failure, as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications.

4. The client is being instructed on the correct technique for using... what to provide the client?

• A. Angle the tip of the inhaler upwards while spraying
• B. Hold one nostril closed while spraying the other nostril
• C. Avoid shaking the inhaler immediately before using
• D. Use the inhaler when first awakening in the morning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for using an inhaler for allergic rhinitis involves holding one nostril closed while spraying the other nostril to ensure proper delivery of the medication. This technique helps direct the medication into the nasal passages for optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect as it refers to an incorrect technique for inhaler use. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the inhaler is often necessary to ensure proper mixing of the medication. Choice D is incorrect as the timing of inhaler use is typically based on individual preferences or healthcare provider recommendations, not specifically tied to the morning.

5. A practical nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving theophylline. Which symptom indicates that the client may be experiencing theophylline toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tremors
• C. Constipation
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors are a common symptom of theophylline toxicity. Other symptoms that may indicate theophylline toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and seizures. Bradycardia, constipation, and hypotension are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client closely for these signs of toxicity and report them promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications.

Similar Questions