Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Hair loss
• C. Weight gain
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tremors. When a client is prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder, one common side effect to monitor for is tremors. Tremors are a known adverse effect of lithium therapy and should be monitored closely by healthcare providers. Choice A, dry mouth, is not typically associated with lithium use. Hair loss, as in choice B, is not a common side effect of lithium. Weight gain, as mentioned in choice C, can occur with some medications used to treat bipolar disorder, but it is not a prominent side effect of lithium specifically.

2. What information should the practical nurse provide to a female client who started taking an oral sulfonamide for a urinary tract infection the previous day and reports slight anorexia, while also experiencing urinary frequency?

• A. Take the medication with an antacid instead of cranberry juice to reduce the anorexia.
• B. Continue to take the medication with a sip of cranberry juice, restricting fluids until the frequency is controlled.
• C. Continue to drink cranberry juice, but take the medicine on an empty stomach with a full glass of water.
• D. Take the medication with a spoonful of ice cream or applesauce and avoid drinking cranberry juice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The practical nurse should advise the client to take sulfonamides with a full glass of water to help prevent crystalluria. It is essential to take the medication on an empty stomach, ideally 1 hour before eating or 2 hours after eating to maximize its absorption and effectiveness. Continuing to drink cranberry juice is beneficial, but it is important to take the medicine separately to enhance its therapeutic action.

3. What instructions should the PN reinforce with the client regarding the newly prescribed medications isosorbide dinitrate and hydrochlorothiazide?

• A. Instruct the client to use a soft bristle toothbrush.
• B. Instruct the client to slowly rise from a sitting or lying down position.
• C. Instruct the client to elevate their legs above the level of their heart.
• D. Instruct the client to limit the amount of fiber in their diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the client is to slowly rise from a sitting or lying down position. Isosorbide dinitrate, a nitrate, and hydrochlorothiazide, a diuretic, can both cause hypotension. When used together, their additive effects can further lower blood pressure, leading to orthostatic hypotension. Instructing the client to change positions slowly helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure, reducing the risk of dizziness or falls. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the potential side effect of hypotension associated with the prescribed medications. Using a soft bristle toothbrush, elevating legs above the heart level, or limiting fiber intake are not specific instructions to mitigate the risk of orthostatic hypotension.

4. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Weight gain
• C. Headache
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by thinning the blood. One of the potential side effects of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, blood in the urine or stool, or prolonged bleeding from cuts or gums. Prompt recognition and management of bleeding are essential to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as weight gain, headache, and dizziness are not common side effects of warfarin. Monitoring for bleeding is a priority due to the anticoagulant properties of warfarin.

5. A healthy 68-year-old client asks the practical nurse (PN) whether they should take the pneumococcal vaccine. Which statement should the PN offer to the client that provides the most accurate information about this vaccine?

• A. The vaccine is given annually before the flu season to those older than 50 years.
• B. The immunization is recommended for children younger than 2 years old and all adults 65 years or older.
• C. The vaccine is for all ages and is given primarily to those traveling overseas to areas of infection.
• D. The vaccine will prevent the occurrence of pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is usually recommended that children younger than 2 years old and adults 65 years or older get vaccinated against pneumococcal disease. This is because these age groups are more susceptible to severe complications from the infection. While the vaccine may be recommended for certain individuals with specific medical conditions at any age, the primary target groups are as mentioned in option B. Option A is incorrect as the pneumococcal vaccine is not given annually like the flu vaccine. Option C is incorrect because the vaccine is not primarily for travelers but for certain age groups and individuals with medical conditions at risk. Option D is incorrect as the vaccine's duration of protection can vary, and it is not guaranteed to prevent pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.

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