Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Weight gain
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects, especially bleeding. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. One of the major risks associated with clopidogrel is an increased tendency to bleed. Therefore, monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in stool or urine, or prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, is crucial to ensure patient safety and early intervention if needed.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sucroferric oxyhydroxide. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Constipation
• C. Nausea
• D. Hyperphosphatemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sucroferric oxyhydroxide is known to cause diarrhea as a side effect. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of diarrhea while on this medication to ensure timely intervention and management.

3. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?

• A. It reduces the production of angiotensin II.
• B. It increases the production of angiotensin II.
• C. It causes increased production of bradykinin.
• D. It increases the production of aldosterone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.

4. A client who received a prescription for cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion for dry eyes asks the practical nurse (PN) if it is safe to continue using artificial tears. What information should the PN provide?

• A. Avoid using artificial tears because they decrease the efficacy of cyclosporine.
• B. Discontinue the use of both products if transient blurring occurs after administration.
• C. Allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears.
• D. Discontinue the use of cyclosporine and artificial tears when tear production reaches a normal level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears. Cyclosporine, an ophthalmic emulsion that increases tear production, can be used in conjunction with artificial tears as long as the products are administered 15 minutes apart. This interval helps to prevent any potential interactions between the two products and ensures optimal effectiveness of cyclosporine for treating dry eyes.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed enoxaparin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. One of the potential adverse effects of enoxaparin is an increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications.

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