HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. The nurse is caring for a patient with short-term persistent diarrhea. Which class of medication would the nurse anticipate giving?
- A. Lubricants
- B. Probiotics
- C. Adsorbents
- D. Anticholinergics
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Probiotics are the correct choice in this scenario as they help restore normal gut flora, which can be effective in treating diarrhea by promoting a healthy balance of bacteria in the intestines. Lubricants are used to ease bowel movements and are not indicated for treating diarrhea. Adsorbents work by binding to toxins in the gut, which is not the primary mechanism needed for treating diarrhea. Anticholinergics are more commonly used for conditions like overactive bladder and not for short-term persistent diarrhea.
2. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of metaproterenol for how do you know it's been effective?
- A. Increased heart rate and blood pressure
- B. Decreased white blood cell count
- C. Decreased wheezing upon auscultation
- D. Decreased respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The effectiveness of metaproterenol, a bronchodilator, is assessed by a decrease in wheezing upon auscultation. Wheezing indicates airway constriction, and a reduction in wheezing signifies improved airflow and bronchodilation due to the medication's action. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the expected outcome of metaproterenol therapy.
3. A client is prescribed an antacid for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. What is the action of this medication that is effective in treating the client's ulcer?
- A. Decrease in the production of gastric secretions
- B. Production of an adherent barrier over the ulcer
- C. Maintenance of a gastric pH of 3.5 or above
- D. Decrease in the gastric motor activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antacids work by neutralizing gastric acids and maintaining a gastric pH of 3.5 or above. This pH level is crucial to prevent the activation of pepsinogen, a precursor to pepsin, which can further damage the ulcer. Choice A is incorrect because antacids do not directly decrease the production of gastric secretions; they neutralize existing acid. Choice B is incorrect as antacids do not form a physical barrier over the ulcer but rather neutralize the acid around it. Choice D is also incorrect as antacids do not affect gastric motor activity but focus on reducing acidity in the stomach.
4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed sotalol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Headache
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sotalol, a medication used for atrial fibrillation, is known to cause bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect as sotalol is more likely to cause bradycardia. Choice C, Headache, and Choice D, Hyperglycemia, are unrelated side effects of sotalol and are not commonly associated with this medication.
5. The patient is prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) orally. What should the nurse consider about administering this drug?
- A. Administer the drug with the first bite of food
- B. Administer the drug immediately after meals
- C. Administer the drug 30 minutes after meals
- D. Administer the drug 30 minutes before meals
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cimetidine is best absorbed when taken 30 minutes before meals to decrease stomach acid. Administering it before meals allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering cimetidine with food, immediately after meals, or 30 minutes after meals may not provide the best conditions for absorption. Taking it before meals ensures that the drug is absorbed properly and can exert its intended effects.
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