HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. The nurse should assess the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Cough
- D. Palpitations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Ipratropium can cause dry mouth as a common side effect due to its anticholinergic effects. Anticholinergic medications like ipratropium can lead to decreased salivary flow, resulting in dry mouth. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because nausea, cough, and palpitations are not commonly associated with ipratropium use.
2. A client arrives at the emergency department experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The healthcare provider prescribes an insulin intravenous drip. Which type of insulin should the nurse locate for the registered nurse to mix into the intravenous fluids?
- A. Isophane
- B. Glargine
- C. Regular
- D. Detemir
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct insulin type for the nurse to mix into the intravenous fluids is regular insulin. In the scenario of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), rapid reduction of blood glucose levels is crucial. Regular insulin has a fast onset of action, making it suitable for intravenous administration to address the high blood sugar levels seen in DKA. Isophane, Glargine, and Detemir are not appropriate choices for intravenous administration in this emergency situation as they are intermediate-acting or long-acting insulins which do not provide the rapid response needed in DKA.
3. A client is prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Avoid drinking alcohol
- B. Take with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset
- C. Increase fluid intake
- D. Take medication with grapefruit juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms is to avoid drinking alcohol. Diazepam can cause drowsiness and enhance the effects of alcohol, leading to increased sedation and impaired cognitive function. Clients should be advised to avoid alcohol consumption while taking diazepam to prevent these adverse effects and ensure their safety.
4. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, which is a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage bradycardia promptly.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed cinacalcet. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypocalcemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyperphosphatemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Cinacalcet is a medication that can lower calcium levels, leading to hypocalcemia. Monitoring for signs of low calcium levels such as muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and abnormal heart rhythms is crucial to prevent complications in clients with chronic kidney disease.\nIncorrect Choices Rationale: B) Hypercalcemia is the opposite effect of cinacalcet; C) Hyperkalemia and D) Hyperphosphatemia are not typically associated with cinacalcet use.
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