Nursing Elites

1. At a support meeting of parents of a teenager with polysubstance dependency, a parent states, 'Each time my son tries to quit taking drugs, he gets so depressed that I'm afraid he will commit suicide.' The nurse's response should be based on which information?

• A. Addiction is a chronic, incurable disease.
• B. Tolerance to the effects of drugs causes feelings of depression.
• C. Feelings of depression frequently lead to drug abuse and addiction.
• D. Careful monitoring should be provided during withdrawal from the drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response in this situation should focus on the connection between feelings of depression and drug abuse. Choice A is incorrect because addiction is treatable, not incurable. Choice B is incorrect as tolerance does not directly cause depression. Choice D is not the best response as the parent's concern is about the son's depression leading to suicidal thoughts, not just the withdrawal process.

2. A male client with schizophrenia tells the nurse that the FBI is monitoring his phone calls. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Let's talk about your feelings of being monitored.
• B. There is no evidence that the FBI is monitoring your calls.
• C. Why do you think the FBI is interested in your phone calls?
• D. I can assure you that your phone calls are not being monitored.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to choose A: 'Let's talk about your feelings of being monitored.' This response shows empathy and encourages the client to express his feelings. Engaging the client in a discussion about his feelings can help address underlying fears without directly challenging the delusion. Choice B is incorrect because directly denying the delusion may lead to increased distrust or agitation in the client. Choice C may come across as confrontational, which can exacerbate the client's paranoia. Choice D offers a false sense of assurance and does not address the client's concerns effectively.

3. In observing a client who is pacing, agitated, and presenting aggressive gestures, with rapid speech pattern and belligerent affect, what is the immediate priority of care for the nurse?

• A. Provide safety for the client and other clients on the unit
• B. Provide the clients on the unit with a sense of comfort and safety
• C. Assist the staff in caring for the client in a controlled environment
• D. Offer the client a less stimulated area to calm down and gain control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a client is displaying aggression and agitation, the immediate priority of care for the nurse is to ensure safety for the client and others on the unit. Providing a safe environment and implementing calming measures take precedence over other interventions. Option A is the correct choice as it addresses the crucial need for safety in a potentially volatile situation. Options B, C, and D, although important, do not address the primary concern of ensuring safety for all individuals involved.

4. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The client asks, 'How long will it take for this medication to work?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you start feeling better.
• B. You should start feeling better within a few days.
• C. The medication works immediately to improve your mood.
• D. It may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Explaining that it may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect provides the client with a realistic expectation. SSRI medications typically require time to build up in the body and exert their therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect as it underestimates the time frame required for the medication to work. Choice B is incorrect as SSRIs do not produce immediate effects. Choice C is incorrect as it falsely states that the medication works immediately, which is not true for SSRIs.

5. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in a quiet activity.
• B. Provide a safe environment and limit stimuli.
• C. Administer a sedative to help the client sleep.
• D. Discuss the consequences of her risky behaviors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.

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