HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. A client in the intensive care unit is being mechanically ventilated, has an indwelling urinary catheter in place, and is exhibiting signs of restlessness. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Review the heart rhythm on cardiac monitors
- B. Check urinary catheter for obstruction
- C. Auscultate bilateral breath sounds
- D. Give PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client in the intensive care unit is mechanically ventilated, has an indwelling urinary catheter, and is restless, the priority action is to check the urinary catheter for obstruction. Restlessness in this context could be due to a blocked catheter causing discomfort or urinary retention, which needs immediate attention to prevent complications. Reviewing the heart rhythm on cardiac monitors can be important but is not the priority in this scenario. Auscultating bilateral breath sounds is also important in a ventilated client but addressing the potential immediate issue of a blocked catheter takes precedence. Giving a PRN dose of lorazepam should not be the first action without addressing the underlying cause of restlessness.
2. The nurse is caring for a comatose client. Which assessment finding provides the greatest indication that the client has an open airway?
- A. The client has asymmetrical chest expansion
- B. Percussion reveals dullness over the lung area
- C. Bilateral breath sounds can be auscultated
- D. The client has been turned q2h
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Bilateral breath sounds can be auscultated." This finding indicates that air is moving adequately in and out of both lungs, confirming an open airway. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Asymmetrical chest expansion may indicate lung or chest wall abnormalities, percussion revealing dullness over the lung area may suggest consolidation or fluid, and turning the client q2h is a position change intervention to prevent complications, not a direct assessment of airway patency.
3. A client collapses while showering and is found by the nurse while making rounds. The client is not breathing and does not have a palpable pulse. The nurse obtains the Automated External Defibrillator (AED). What action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Follow the prompts of the AED
- B. Apply the AED pads to the client’s chest
- C. Wipe the client’s chest dry
- D. Move the client from the bathroom
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Applying the AED pads is the immediate next step after obtaining the AED in a cardiac arrest situation. Placing the pads correctly on the client's chest is crucial for the AED to analyze the heart rhythm accurately and deliver a shock if needed. Following the prompts of the AED comes after the pads are in place. Wiping the client's chest dry or moving the client from the bathroom are not priorities at this critical moment and may delay life-saving interventions.
4. A client is admitted with hepatitis A (HAV) and dehydration. Subjective symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, and malaise. What additional assessment should the nurse expect to find during the preicteric phase?
- A. RUQ abdominal pain
- B. Clay-colored stools
- C. Icteric sclera
- D. Pruritus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the preicteric phase of hepatitis A, the nurse should expect to find RUQ (right upper quadrant) abdominal pain. This pain is common in the early phase of hepatitis A and is associated with liver inflammation. Clay-colored stools (Choice B) are typically seen in the icteric phase when there is a lack of bile flow. Icteric sclera (Choice C) refers to yellowing of the eyes, which is a characteristic of the icteric phase. Pruritus (Choice D), which is itching of the skin, is also more commonly associated with the icteric phase when bile salts accumulate in the skin.
5. A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administer to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?
- A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Famotidine (Pepcid)
- C. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
- D. Atenolol (Tenormin)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thiamine supplementation is critical in preventing Wernicke's syndrome, especially in clients with chronic alcohol use. Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production but does not prevent Wernicke's syndrome. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome.
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