Nursing Elites

1. An older adult male is admitted with complications related to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He reports progressive dyspnea that worsens on exertion, and his weakness has increased over the past month. The nurse notes that he has dependent edema in both lower legs. Based on these assessment findings, which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Restrict daily fluid intake
• B. Eat meals at the same time daily
• C. Maintain a low-protein diet
• D. Limit the intake of high-calorie foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dependent edema in both lower legs is a sign of fluid overload, which can exacerbate dyspnea in patients with COPD. Restricting daily fluid intake can help reduce the edema and alleviate breathing difficulties. A low-protein diet is not necessary unless there are specific renal concerns. Eating meals at the same time daily or limiting high-calorie foods is not directly associated with addressing fluid overload and dyspnea in COPD patients.

2. When assessing a client with acute asthma, the nurse is most likely to obtain which finding?

• A. Pursed lip breathing and clubbing of fingers
• B. Fever and a high-pitched inspiratory stridor
• C. A short expiratory phase and hemoptysis
• D. Cough and musical breath sounds on expiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client with acute asthma, a cough and wheezing or musical breath sounds on expiration are typical findings. Pursed lip breathing and clubbing of fingers (choice A) are not common in acute asthma but could be seen in chronic respiratory conditions. Fever and high-pitched inspiratory stridor (choice B) are more indicative of croup or epiglottitis. A short expiratory phase and hemoptysis (choice C) are not typical findings in acute asthma.

3. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medication?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has led to diuresis and lowered the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
• D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client experiences syncope due to a significant drop in blood pressure after receiving multiple antihypertensive medications, the additive effect of these medications can cause the blood pressure to drop excessively. This additive effect can lead to hypotension, which is why the nurse decided to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication. Choices A, B, and D provide incorrect rationales. Choice A mentions diuresis, which is not directly related to the drop in blood pressure due to additive medication effects. Choice B refers to an antagonistic interaction reducing effectiveness, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D talks about a synergistic effect leading to drug toxicity, which is not the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure observed in the client.

4. Which client’s vital signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that the nurse should report to the healthcare provider?

• A. P 70, BP 120/60 mmHg; P 100, BP 90/60 mmHg; rapid respirations.
• B. P 55, BP 160/70 mmHg; P 50, BP 194/70 mmHg; irregular respirations.
• C. P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations.
• D. P 110, BP 130/70 mmHg; P 100, BP 110/70 mmHg; shallow respirations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. The vital signs presented (P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations) indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which can be a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention. Kussmaul respirations are deep and labored breathing patterns associated with metabolic acidosis and can be a late sign of increased ICP. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate vital sign patterns consistent with increased ICP. Choice A shows variations in blood pressure and pulse rate but does not provide a clear indication of increased ICP. Choice B displays fluctuations in blood pressure and pulse rate with irregular respirations, but these vital signs do not specifically suggest increased ICP. Choice D presents relatively stable vital signs with shallow respirations, which do not align with the typical vital signs seen in increased ICP.

5. After removing an IV that became infiltrated in the client’s left forearm, which site should the nurse select as a possible site to insert another IV catheter?

• A. Right hand
• B. Right forearm
• C. Left hand
• D. Right subclavian

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right hand. When an IV becomes infiltrated in the client's left forearm, it is essential to avoid the same side due to the risk of complications. Therefore, the right hand is a suitable alternative site for IV insertion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choosing the right forearm (B) would still be on the same side, which increases the risk of complications. The left hand (C) is not a preferred option immediately after an infiltration in the left forearm. The right subclavian (D) is an invasive site typically reserved for central line placement and not a first-line choice for IV insertion.

Similar Questions