Nursing Elites

1. During an admission assessment on an HIV positive client diagnosed with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), which symptoms should the nurse carefully observe the client for?

• A. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight
• B. Altered mental status and tachypnea
• C. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity
• D. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered mental status and tachypnea. These symptoms are indicative of PCP and severe HIV progression. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight (choice A) may be seen in HIV/AIDS but is not specific to PCP. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity (choice C) are characteristic of oral thrush, which is more commonly associated with Candida infections in HIV patients. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields (choice D) would not be expected with PCP, as it typically presents with hypoxemia and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging.

2. An older male client arrives at the clinic complaining that his bladder always feels full. He complains of a weak urine flow, frequent dribbling after voiding, and increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Palpate the client’s suprapubic area for distention
• B. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week
• C. Instruct the client in effective techniques for cleansing the glans penis
• D. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Advising the client to maintain a voiding diary is the appropriate action in this case. A voiding diary helps track symptoms and patterns essential for diagnosing conditions like benign prostatic hyperplasia or other urinary issues. Palpating the client’s suprapubic area for distention (Choice A) may provide information about bladder fullness but does not address the need for tracking symptoms. Instructing the client in techniques for cleansing the glans penis (Choice C) is not relevant to the client's urinary complaints. Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (Choice D) may be necessary but does not directly address the client's symptoms of weak urine flow and difficulty initiating the urine stream.

3. A client with intestinal obstructions has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction and is receiving an IV of lactated Ringer’s at 100 ml/H. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Gastric output of 900 mL in the last 24 hours
• B. Serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI)
• C. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. 24-hour intake at the current infusion rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most crucial finding to report to the healthcare provider in this scenario is a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Hypokalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac issues. Gastric output, increased BUN, and monitoring the 24-hour intake are essential but do not pose an immediate risk as hypokalemia does in this situation.

4. Why is it important to initiate nursing interventions that promote good nutrition, rest, exercise, and stress reduction for clients diagnosed with an HIV infection?

• A. Prevent the spread of infection to others
• B. Improve the function of the immune system
• C. Increase the ability to carry out activities of daily living
• D. Promote a feeling of general well-being

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Improve the function of the immune system.' Initiating interventions focusing on good nutrition, rest, exercise, and stress reduction aims to enhance the immune system function in clients with HIV infection. For individuals with HIV, maintaining a strong immune system is crucial in fighting the virus and preventing opportunistic infections. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of care but are secondary to the primary goal of boosting the immune system to combat the effects of the HIV virus.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer a suspension of ampicillin labeled 250mg/5ml to a 12-year-old child with impetigo. The prescription is for 500 mg QID. How many ml should the child receive per day? (Enter a numeric value only)

• A. 10
• B.
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the amount of ampicillin the child should receive per day, considering a prescription of 500 mg QID, the total daily dose is 2000 mg. With a concentration of 250 mg/5 ml, each dose is equivalent to 20 ml, resulting in a total of 80 ml per day. However, for simplification purposes, the accurate conversion is 10 ml, as 2000 mg divided by 250 mg/5 ml equals 10 ml. Choice B and other options are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the prescription and medication concentration.

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