HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. The parents of a child who had surgical repair of a myelomeningocele are being taught how to change an occlusive dressing on the child’s back. Which statement by the parents indicates that they understand this procedure?
- A. When changing the dressing, the tape should be removed slowly to prevent trauma to the skin
- B. To prevent infection, the dressing should be kept dry to avoid excess moisture
- C. The skin incision should be kept moist to promote healing and prevent dryness
- D. The incision should be protected from fecal contamination by an intact dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because protecting the incision from fecal contamination is essential to prevent infection and promote healing in a child with a myelomeningocele. This is crucial as fecal matter can introduce harmful bacteria to the wound. Choice A is incorrect as removing the tape slowly to prevent trauma to the skin is a general guideline but not specific to preventing infection. Choice B is incorrect because keeping the dressing dry can lead to complications as the wound needs a moist environment to heal properly. Choice C is incorrect as keeping the skin incision moist may promote infection and delay healing, making it an incorrect statement for postoperative care.
2. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?
- A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
- B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
- C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
- D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.
3. A 37-year-old client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being treated for renal osteodystrophy. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in this client’s plan of care?
- A. High risk for infection related to subclavian catheter
- B. High risk of injury related to ambulation
- C. Knowledge deficit related to a high-protein diet
- D. Hygiene self-care deficit related to uremic frost
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Uremic frost is a condition in which urea and other waste products are excreted through the skin, leaving a powdery residue. This indicates poor hygiene and self-care, common issues in patients with CKD and renal osteodystrophy. Proper hygiene measures are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be included in the plan of care for a CKD patient with renal osteodystrophy. Choice A is more related to a vascular access issue, choice B is more related to mobility concerns, and choice C is more related to dietary education.
4. The healthcare provider believes that a client who frequently requests pain medication may have a substance abuse problem. Which intervention reflects the healthcare provider's value of client autonomy over veracity?
- A. Administer the prescribed analgesic when requested
- B. Refer the client to a substance abuse program
- C. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to provide a placebo
- D. Document the frequency of medication requests
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering the prescribed analgesic when requested is the most appropriate intervention that reflects the healthcare provider's value of client autonomy over veracity. This action respects the client's right to manage their pain and avoids deception. Referring the client to a substance abuse program (Choice B) assumes a diagnosis without evidence and does not respect the client's autonomy. Collaborating to provide a placebo (Choice C) would involve deception, which goes against the value of veracity. Documenting the frequency of medication requests (Choice D) is important for the client's care but does not directly address the issue of respecting client autonomy over veracity.
5. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving a beta-blocker medication. What is the most important outcome for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Heart rate and blood pressure
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Liver function tests
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart rate and blood pressure. When a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is on a beta-blocker medication, monitoring heart rate and blood pressure is crucial. Beta-blockers lower heart rate and blood pressure, so monitoring these parameters helps assess the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bradycardia or hypotension. Choices B, C, and D are not the most important outcomes to monitor in this scenario. Blood glucose levels are typically monitored in clients with diabetes or when using medications that affect glucose levels. Respiratory rate is important in assessing respiratory function and oxygenation, while liver function tests are more relevant when monitoring the impact of medications on liver health.
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