the nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury the glasgow coma scale gcs score was 13 on admission it is now
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Nursing Elites

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HESI CAT Exam Quizlet

1. The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 13 on admission. It is now assessed at 6. What is the priority nursing intervention based on the client’s current GCS?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A significant drop in GCS indicates a severe decline in neurological status, necessitating immediate communication with the healthcare provider. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for prompt evaluation and intervention to address the worsening condition. Choice B is incorrect because preparing the family for imminent death is premature and not supported by the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of monitoring should be increased to every 15 minutes rather than every hour due to the significant drop in GCS. Choice D is incorrect because initiating CPR is not indicated based solely on a decreased GCS score.

2. A client with cervical cancer is hospitalized for insertion of a sealed internal cervical radiation implant. While providing care, the nurse finds the radiation implant in the bed. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when finding a radiation implant in the bed is to place the implant in a lead container using long-handled forceps. This action is crucial to minimize radiation exposure to both the patient and healthcare providers and ensure the safe disposal of the radioactive material. Calling the radiology department (choice A) may lead to unnecessary delays in addressing the immediate safety concern. Reinserting the implant into the vagina (choice B) is contraindicated and can cause harm. Applying double gloves to retrieve the implant for disposal (choice C) is not adequate for ensuring proper containment and handling of the radioactive implant, which requires specialized equipment like a lead container and long-handled forceps.

3. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client experiences syncope due to a significant drop in blood pressure after receiving multiple antihypertensive medications, the additive effect of these medications can cause the blood pressure to drop excessively. This additive effect can lead to hypotension, which is why the nurse decided to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication. Choices A, B, and D provide incorrect rationales. Choice A mentions diuresis, which is not directly related to the drop in blood pressure due to additive medication effects. Choice B refers to an antagonistic interaction reducing effectiveness, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D talks about a synergistic effect leading to drug toxicity, which is not the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure observed in the client.

4. A client morning assessment includes bounding peripheral pulses, weight gain of 2 pounds, pitting ankle edema, and moist crackles bilaterally. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a prescribed diuretic is the most important intervention in this scenario as the client is presenting signs of fluid overload and heart failure. Diuretics help reduce fluid retention in the body, alleviating symptoms like edema and crackles. Restricting fluid intake may be necessary in some cases, but in this acute situation, addressing the immediate fluid overload with a diuretic takes precedence. Weighing the client daily and maintaining accurate intake and output are important aspects of monitoring, but they do not directly address the urgent need to manage fluid overload.

5. The nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and non-communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Engaging the client in a non-threatening conversation is crucial as it can help build trust and provide support, addressing the client's withdrawal. This intervention focuses on establishing a therapeutic relationship and giving the client an opportunity to express their feelings. Choices A, B, and C do not directly target the client's need for communication and may not address the underlying issues contributing to her withdrawal. Encouraging the client's family to visit more often (Choice A) may add pressure or discomfort to the client. Scheduling a daily conference with the social worker (Choice B) may not address the client's immediate need for communication. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice C) may be overwhelming for the client and not address her withdrawal directly.

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