Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administer to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Famotidine (Pepcid)
• C. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• D. Atenolol (Tenormin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thiamine supplementation is critical in preventing Wernicke's syndrome, especially in clients with chronic alcohol use. Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production but does not prevent Wernicke's syndrome. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome.

2. The client has silvery scaling plaques bilaterally on elbows, forearms, and palms. When scratched, the skin bleeds over these plaques. What is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Interventions to decrease emotional stress
• B. Precautions about avoiding sunlight
• C. Strategies to increase omega-3 fatty acids in the diet
• D. Instruct about applying a corticosteroid cream

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important aspect to include in this client's plan of care is interventions to decrease emotional stress. Psoriasis, characterized by silvery scaling plaques on the skin, can be exacerbated by emotional stress. Managing stress is crucial in controlling the condition. Precautions about avoiding sunlight are important in psoriasis management, but emotional stress has a more significant impact. While omega-3 fatty acids may provide some benefits, stress management should take priority. Applying a corticosteroid cream may help with symptoms, but addressing emotional stress is crucial for long-term management of psoriasis.

3. A female client with borderline personality disorder is being discharged today. During morning rounds, the client complains about the aloofness of the night shift nurse and expresses joy to see the nurse on duty. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client’s dichotomous tendency?

• A. I am glad you like me. Which nurse was acting aloof to you?
• B. Tomorrow I will talk to that nurse about how you were treated last night.
• C. What did the night nurse do that makes you think she is aloof?
• D. I am happy that you are getting better and will be able to go home.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best response as it acknowledges the client's feelings while exploring their concerns. By asking which nurse was acting aloof, the nurse shows understanding and allows the client to express their feelings further. This response validates the client's emotions and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice B focuses on a future action without addressing the immediate concern at hand. Choice C seeks clarification on the night nurse's behavior, which is a good approach but lacks the personal touch of Choice A. Choice D shifts the focus away from the client's current feelings and concerns, missing the opportunity to address the dichotomous thinking displayed by the client.

4. The healthcare provider changes a client’s medication prescription from IV to PO administration and doubles the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduces bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Continue administering the medication via the IV route.
• B. Give half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider.
• C. Administer the medication orally as prescribed.
• D. Consult with the pharmacist regarding the prescription change.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to consult with the pharmacist regarding the change in prescription. With the high first-pass effect of the medication when given orally, it reduces its bioavailability, meaning a dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Continuing to administer the medication via the IV route (choice A) is not appropriate as the prescription has been changed to oral administration. Giving half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider (choice B) is not recommended without proper guidance, which should come from consulting with the pharmacist. Simply administering the medication orally as prescribed (choice C) without addressing the potential issue of reduced bioavailability may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.

5. A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?

• A. Observe the PICC line site for inflammation.
• B. Encourage increasing fluid intake.
• C. Monitor blood pressure regularly.
• D. Assess skin turgor for dehydration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the PICC line site for inflammation. When a client with a PICC line develops a fever, it could indicate an infection related to the catheter. Assessing the PICC line site for signs of inflammation, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage, is crucial in identifying a potential infection early. Choice B is incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not directly related to assessing a PICC line for infection. Choice C is not the most appropriate assessment in this situation as monitoring blood pressure may not directly help in identifying the cause of the fever. Choice D is unrelated to the assessment of a fever in a client with a PICC line.

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