Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administer to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Famotidine (Pepcid)
• C. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• D. Atenolol (Tenormin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thiamine supplementation is critical in preventing Wernicke's syndrome, especially in clients with chronic alcohol use. Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production but does not prevent Wernicke's syndrome. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome.

2. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instructions should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is working with the nurse?

• A. Continue to measure the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
• B. Since a reaction did not occur, the priority is to maintain client comfort during the transfusion
• C. Monitor the client carefully for the next three hours and report the onset of a reaction immediately
• D. Notify the nurse when the transfusion has finished, so further client assessment can be done

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP is to continue measuring the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete. This is important because continuous monitoring of vital signs during the transfusion helps detect any delayed reactions promptly. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining client comfort is important but not the priority over monitoring vital signs. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring should be ongoing and not limited to a specific time frame. Choice D is incorrect as the UAP should monitor vital signs throughout the transfusion, not just at the end.

3. A high school football player comes to the clinic complaining of severe acne. The mother reports recent behavior changes, including irritability and suspiciousness of friends. The nurse’s assessment reveals an elevated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Encourage the client to see a dermatologist
• B. Refer the adolescent to a substance abuse program
• C. Suggest a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet
• D. Inquire about a possible use of anabolic steroids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the high school football player presenting with severe acne, behavior changes, elevated blood pressure, and suspicion of friends suggests the possible use of anabolic steroids. Anabolic steroid use can lead to such symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should first inquire about the possible use of anabolic steroids to address the root cause of the presenting issues. Encouraging the client to see a dermatologist (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the underlying cause is crucial first. Referring the adolescent to a substance abuse program (Choice B) is premature without confirming steroid use. Suggesting a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation where a serious issue like anabolic steroid use needs immediate attention.

4. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
• B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
• D. Administer an antihypertensive agent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.

5. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is more important to include in this client’s discharge plan?

• A. Describe the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels.
• B. Encourage a balanced and nutritious diet.
• C. Reinforce the need to continue outpatient treatment.
• D. Educate on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuing outpatient treatment is crucial for managing anorexia nervosa and preventing future complications. Reinforcing the need to continue outpatient treatment ensures ongoing support, monitoring, and therapy for the client's anorexia nervosa. Describing the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels (Choice A) is relevant but does not address the underlying eating disorder directly. Encouraging a balanced and nutritious diet (Choice B) is important; however, specific dietary recommendations should be tailored to the individual's condition by healthcare providers. Educating on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa (Choice D) is informative but does not provide a direct actionable step for the client's immediate discharge plan, unlike the importance of continuing outpatient treatment.

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