Nursing Elites

1. During the administration of albuterol per nebulizer, the client complains of shakiness. The client’s vital signs are heart rate 120 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, blood pressure 140/80. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer an anxiolytic
• B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
• C. Stop the albuterol administration and restart in 30 minutes
• D. Educate the client about the side effects of albuterol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shakiness is a known side effect of albuterol, which can often be managed without the need for additional medications. Educating the client about the potential side effects of albuterol, including shakiness, helps them understand what to expect and how to manage these effects. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice A) is not indicated as shakiness related to albuterol is not a sign of anxiety. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is not necessary based on the client's presentation of shakiness and vital signs. Stopping the albuterol administration and restarting in 30 minutes (Choice C) may not be necessary since shakiness is a common side effect that can often be managed without interrupting the treatment.

2. A nurse working on an endocrine unit should see which client first?

• A. An adolescent male with diabetes who is arguing about his insulin dose.
• B. An older client with Addison’s disease whose current blood sugar level is 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l).
• C. An adult with a blood sugar of 384mg/dl (21.31mmol/l) and urine output of 350 ml in the last hour.
• D. A client taking corticosteroids who has become disoriented in the last two hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with Addison’s disease and a blood sugar level of 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l) is experiencing hypoglycemia, which can progress to adrenal crisis. This situation requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D, although concerning, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with Addison’s disease and hypoglycemia. The adolescent arguing about his insulin dose can be addressed after stabilizing the client with Addison’s disease. The adult with high blood sugar and increased urine output may have hyperglycemia but is not in immediate danger. The client taking corticosteroids who is disoriented needs evaluation but is not in an acute life-threatening condition as the client with hypoglycemia.

3. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of Wernicke’s syndrome. What assessment finding should the nurse use in planning the client’s care?

• A. Right lower abdominal pain
• B. Confusion
• C. Depression
• D. Peripheral neuropathy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion is a key symptom of Wernicke’s syndrome, which is due to thiamine deficiency. Wernicke’s syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms known as the classic triad, which includes confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Right lower abdominal pain, depression, and peripheral neuropathy are not typically associated with Wernicke’s syndrome, making them incorrect choices for this question.

4. An 8-year-old child who weighs 60 pounds receives an order for Polycilin (Ampicillin) suspension 25 mg/kg/day divided into a dose every 8 hours. The medication is labeled '125 mg/5 ml'. How many ml should the nurse administer per dose every 8 hours?

• A. 5
• B. 10
• C. 15
• D. 20

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calculate the daily dose first: 60 pounds x 25 mg/kg = 1500 mg/day. Divide by 3 doses = 500 mg/dose. Convert to mL: (500 mg / 125 mg) x 5 ml = 20 ml. However, the question asks for the dose per administration every 8 hours, which is 1/3 of the daily dose. So, the correct calculation should be (20 ml / 3) = 6.67 ml, which rounds to 5 ml. Therefore, the correct answer is 5 ml. Choice B (10 ml) is incorrect because it doesn't consider the frequency of dosing. Choice C (15 ml) is incorrect as it overestimates the dose. Choice D (20 ml) is incorrect as it represents the total daily dose, not the dose per administration every 8 hours.

5. After years of struggling with weight management, a middle-aged man is evaluated for gastroplasty. He has experienced difficulty managing his diabetes mellitus and hypertension, but he is approved for surgery. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor for signs of depression
• B. Apply sequential compression stockings
• C. Provide a wide variety of meal choices
• D. Observe for signs of depression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Observing for signs of depression is crucial in this patient's plan of care as depression can impact his overall recovery and management post-surgery. Depression is common in individuals struggling with weight management, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Monitoring for urinary incontinence (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the patient is undergoing gastroplasty for weight management, not a urinary issue. Applying sequential compression stockings (Choice B) is important for preventing deep vein thrombosis in immobile patients but is not the priority in this scenario. Providing a wide variety of meal choices (Choice C) is not the most crucial intervention at this stage, as post-gastroplasty dietary restrictions are essential for successful weight management.

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