HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. After undergoing an uncomplicated gastric bypass surgery, a client is experiencing difficulty managing their diet. What dietary instruction is most important for the nurse to explain to the client?
- A. Chew food slowly and thoroughly before attempting to swallow
- B. Plan volume-controlled evenly spaced meals throughout the day
- C. Sip fluid slowly with each meal and between meals
- D. Eliminate or reduce intake of fatty and gas-forming foods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Thoroughly chewing food is crucial for clients who have undergone gastric bypass surgery to aid in digestion and prevent complications. Proper chewing helps break down food into smaller particles, making it easier for the digestive system to process. This instruction is essential to prevent issues such as food blockages or inadequate nutrient absorption. Choices B and C are also important for post-gastric bypass clients to maintain proper nutrition and hydration, but they are not as critical as ensuring thorough chewing. Choice D addresses dietary concerns but is not as immediately crucial as ensuring the client chews food properly to support digestion and prevent complications.
2. While a patient is receiving beta-1b interferon every other day for multiple sclerosis, which serum laboratory test findings should the nurse monitor to assess for possible bone marrow suppression caused by the medication? (Select all that apply)
- A. Platelet count
- B. White blood cell count (WBC)
- C. Sodium and potassium
- D. Red blood cell count (RBC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Beta-1b interferon can lead to bone marrow suppression, impacting blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count, white blood cell count (WBC), and red blood cell count (RBC) is essential. Platelet count is a direct indicator of bone marrow function and can show early signs of bone marrow suppression. While sodium, potassium, and albumin/protein levels are important for overall health assessment, they are not directly associated with bone marrow suppression caused by the medication.
3. The nurse is teaching a male adolescent recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) about self-injecting insulin. Which approach is best for the nurse to use to evaluate the effectiveness of the teaching?
- A. Observe him demonstrating the self-injection technique to another diabetic adolescent.
- B. Ask the adolescent to describe his comfort level with injecting himself with insulin.
- C. Review his glycosylated hemoglobin level 3 months after the teaching session.
- D. Have the adolescent list the steps for safe insulin administration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reviewing the glycosylated hemoglobin level after a few months is the best approach to evaluate the effectiveness of teaching self-injection. This measurement provides an objective indicator of the adolescent's glucose control over time, reflecting the impact of insulin self-administration education. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the long-term impact of the teaching on the adolescent's diabetes management.
4. During the administration of albuterol per nebulizer, the client complains of shakiness. The client’s vital signs are heart rate 120 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, blood pressure 140/80. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer an anxiolytic
- B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
- C. Stop the albuterol administration and restart in 30 minutes
- D. Educate the client about the side effects of albuterol
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Shakiness is a known side effect of albuterol, which can often be managed without the need for additional medications. Educating the client about the potential side effects of albuterol, including shakiness, helps them understand what to expect and how to manage these effects. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice A) is not indicated as shakiness related to albuterol is not a sign of anxiety. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is not necessary based on the client's presentation of shakiness and vital signs. Stopping the albuterol administration and restarting in 30 minutes (Choice C) may not be necessary since shakiness is a common side effect that can often be managed without interrupting the treatment.
5. An older male client with a history of type 1 diabetes has not felt well for the past few days and arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping and vomiting. He is lethargic, moderately confused, and cannot remember when he took his last dose of insulin or ate last. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. obtain a serum potassium level
- B. administer the client's usual dose of insulin
- C. assess pupillary response to light
- D. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of normal saline
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering IV fluids is crucial to address potential dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, especially if the client is unable to provide a clear history. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline will help rehydrate the client and address any electrolyte imbalances, which are common in clients with diabetes experiencing symptoms like abdominal cramping and vomiting. Obtaining a serum potassium level can be important but is not the priority when the client is showing signs of dehydration and confusion. Administering insulin should only be done after addressing hydration and electrolyte status. Assessing pupillary response to light is not the most critical action in this situation compared to addressing dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access