HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. A female client is admitted for a diabetic crisis resulting from inadequate dietary practices. After stabilization, the nurse talks to the client about her prescribed diet. What client characteristic is most important for successful adherence to the diabetic diet?
- A. Understands the importance of timing insulin administration 30 minutes before eating
- B. Frequently includes fruits and vegetables in meals and snacks
- C. Has access to someone who can assist with meal preparation and monitoring
- D. Demonstrates willingness to consistently follow the prescribed diet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial characteristic for successful adherence to a diabetic diet is the client's willingness to consistently follow the prescribed diet plan. Option A, understanding insulin timing, is important for treatment but not directly related to dietary adherence. Option B, consuming fruits and vegetables, is a healthy practice but does not ensure adherence to a specific diabetic diet. Option C, having assistance with meal preparation, is beneficial but not as essential as the client's personal commitment to adhering to the diet consistently.
2. A male client, admitted to the mental health unit for a somatoform disorder, becomes angry because he cannot have his pain medication. He demands that the nurse call the healthcare provider and threatens to leave the hospital. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in seclusion per unit guidelines
- B. Administer a PRN prescription for lorazepam (Ativan)
- C. Call security to help ensure staff and client safety
- D. Ask what other methods he uses to deal with pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize ensuring safety. When a client becomes aggressive and threatens to leave, calling security is crucial to help maintain a safe environment for both staff and the client. Placing the client in seclusion (choice A) is not the appropriate initial action as it may escalate the situation further. Administering lorazepam (choice B) should not be the first response to behavioral issues. Asking about other pain management methods (choice D) is not the immediate priority when safety is at risk.
3. The client who had a below-the-knee (BKA) amputation is being prepared for discharge to home. Which recommendation should the nurse provide this client?
- A. Inspect skin for redness
- B. Use a residual limb shrinker
- C. Apply alcohol to the stump after bathing
- D. Wash the stump with soap and water
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with a below-the-knee amputation preparing for discharge is to wash the stump with soap and water. This helps maintain cleanliness and prevent infection. Inspecting the skin for redness is important to monitor for signs of infection, but it is not a specific recommendation for a BKA amputation. Using a residual limb shrinker can aid in shaping and reducing swelling in the residual limb but is not usually done immediately after a BKA amputation. Applying alcohol to the stump after bathing is not recommended as it can lead to skin irritation and dryness.
4. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, “I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home”. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
- B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
- C. Let me contact your healthcare provider to discuss the possibility of receiving IV heparin therapy at home
- D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely.' Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents further clot formation, but it does not quickly dissolve existing clots. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the purpose of heparin and the necessity for close monitoring of bleeding risks. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the misunderstanding about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is incorrect as home administration of IV heparin therapy requires careful consideration and should not be suggested without a thorough assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's misconception about heparin's role in dissolving clots and instead focuses on the client's desire to leave the hospital.
5. Which client is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?
- A. An adult client who cannot sleep due to constant pain
- B. An older client who attempted suicide 1 month ago
- C. A young adult who takes antipsychotic medications twice a day
- D. A middle-aged woman who uses a tank for supplemental oxygen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because older adults are at higher risk for delirium, especially following a recent suicide attempt, which can be a significant stressor. Choice A is less likely to develop delirium solely due to difficulty sleeping; delirium is more complex and multifactorial. Choice C, a young adult taking antipsychotic medications, may be at risk for other conditions but not necessarily delirium. Choice D, a middle-aged woman using supplemental oxygen, is not directly linked to an increased risk of delirium compared to the older client who recently attempted suicide.
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