Nursing Elites

1. The charge nurse of a cardiac telemetry unit is assigning client care to a registered nurse (RN) and a practical nurse (PN). Which client should be assigned to the RN?

• A. One day after a permanent pacemaker insertion, a client's telemetry monitor shows a pacer rhythm.
• B. Two hours after undergoing cardioversion, a client's telemetry monitor shows a normal sinus rhythm.
• C. A client started on carvedilol the previous day for heart failure has controlled atrial fibrillation.
• D. Four hours after admission, a client with syncope shows complete heart block on the telemetry monitor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because complete heart block is a critical condition that requires immediate assessment and management by a registered nurse (RN). In complete heart block, there is a significant conduction disturbance that can lead to serious complications. The RN is better equipped to handle such complex and potentially life-threatening situations. Choices A, B, and C involve less critical conditions that can be managed by a practical nurse (PN) under the supervision of the RN. Therefore, assigning the client with complete heart block to the RN ensures prompt and appropriate intervention.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) to a male client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal and peripheral neuritis. The client belligerently states, “What do you think you’re doing?” How should the nurse respond?

• A. “I cannot give you this medication until you calm down.”
• B. “This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet.”
• C. “Would you prefer to learn to administer your own shot?”
• D. “You will feel calmer and less jittery after this shot.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to provide a relevant explanation to the client. Choice B, “This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet,” is the best answer because it directly addresses the client's concern about the purpose of the medication. By explaining the potential benefit of the injection, the nurse can alleviate the client's anxiety and increase their cooperation during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's question and may escalate the situation. Choice C is not suitable as it deviates from addressing the client's immediate query. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to specifically address the client's concern regarding the medication's purpose.

3. The healthcare provider believes that a client who frequently requests pain medication may have a substance abuse problem. Which intervention reflects the healthcare provider's value of client autonomy over veracity?

• A. Administer the prescribed analgesic when requested
• B. Refer the client to a substance abuse program
• C. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to provide a placebo
• D. Document the frequency of medication requests

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering the prescribed analgesic when requested is the most appropriate intervention that reflects the healthcare provider's value of client autonomy over veracity. This action respects the client's right to manage their pain and avoids deception. Referring the client to a substance abuse program (Choice B) assumes a diagnosis without evidence and does not respect the client's autonomy. Collaborating to provide a placebo (Choice C) would involve deception, which goes against the value of veracity. Documenting the frequency of medication requests (Choice D) is important for the client's care but does not directly address the issue of respecting client autonomy over veracity.

4. A client has a history of vasovagal attacks resulting in brady-dysrhythmias. Which instruction is most important to include in the teaching plan?

• A. Use stool softeners regularly
• B. Avoid electromagnetic fields
• C. Maintain a low-fat diet
• D. Do not use aspirin products

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use stool softeners regularly.' Vasovagal attacks can be triggered by straining, and using stool softeners can help prevent such attacks. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to preventing vasovagal attacks in this context. Avoiding electromagnetic fields, maintaining a low-fat diet, or not using aspirin products are important for various health reasons but not specifically for preventing vasovagal attacks related to brady-dysrhythmias.

5. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
• C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
• D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.

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