HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. Following morning care, a client with C-5 spinal cord injury who is sitting in a wheelchair becomes flushed and complains of a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Check for any kinks or obstructions in the client’s Foley tubing
- B. Assess the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes
- C. Administer a prescribed PRN dose of hydralazine (Apresoline)
- D. Educate the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury experiencing flushing and a headache, the priority intervention is to assess the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes. These symptoms could indicate autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial to identify and address this emergency situation promptly. Checking for kinks or obstructions in the Foley tubing (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Administering hydralazine (Choice C) without knowing the blood pressure could be harmful as it may lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Educating the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia (Choice D) is important for long-term management but is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.
2. The client enters the room of a client with Parkinson’s disease who is taking carbidopa-levodopa. The client is arising slowly from the chair while the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) stands next to the chair. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Demonstrate how to help the client move more efficiently
- B. Offer a PRN analgesic to reduce painful movement
- C. Affirm that the client should arise slowly from the chair
- D. Tell the UAP to assist the client in moving more quickly
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to demonstrate how to help the client move more efficiently. As the client is arising slowly from the chair, providing guidance on proper movement techniques can improve the client's mobility and safety. Offering a PRN analgesic (Choice B) is not relevant to the client's situation as there is no indication of pain. Affirming that the client should arise slowly (Choice C) does not address the need for assistance in improving movement efficiency. Instructing the UAP to assist the client in moving more quickly (Choice D) may compromise the client's safety and is not the appropriate action to take.
3. When deciding whether to join a nursing strike called after collective bargaining efforts have failed, which factor is most important for the nurse to consider?
- A. Nurse Practice Act of the State
- B. The role of nurses as client advocates
- C. Standards of clinical nursing practice
- D. Personal value system
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The role of nurses as client advocates is crucial when considering the impact of a strike on patient care. Nurses have a responsibility to advocate for their patients' well-being at all times. Choices A, C, and D, although important, are not the most critical factor to consider in this situation. The Nurse Practice Act of the State is essential for guiding nursing practice, standards of clinical nursing practice ensure quality care, and personal values are important; however, the primary focus during a strike should be on the role of nurses as client advocates.
4. Which laboratory finding should the nurse expect to see in a child with acute rheumatic fever?
- A. Thrombocytopenia
- B. Polycythemia
- C. Decreased ESR
- D. Positive ASO titer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Positive ASO titer. A positive ASO titer indicates recent streptococcal infection, which is associated with acute rheumatic fever. Thrombocytopenia (choice A) is not a typical laboratory finding in acute rheumatic fever. Polycythemia (choice B) refers to an increased red blood cell count, which is not typically seen in acute rheumatic fever. Decreased ESR (choice C) is not a common laboratory finding in acute rheumatic fever; in fact, ESR is often elevated in inflammatory conditions like rheumatic fever.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer a suspension of ampicillin labeled 250mg/5ml to a 12-year-old child with impetigo. The prescription is for 500 mg QID. How many ml should the child receive per day? (Enter a numeric value only)
- A. 10
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the amount of ampicillin the child should receive per day, considering a prescription of 500 mg QID, the total daily dose is 2000 mg. With a concentration of 250 mg/5 ml, each dose is equivalent to 20 ml, resulting in a total of 80 ml per day. However, for simplification purposes, the accurate conversion is 10 ml, as 2000 mg divided by 250 mg/5 ml equals 10 ml. Choice B and other options are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the prescription and medication concentration.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access