HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?
- A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
- B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
- C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
- D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.
2. A man calls the hospital and asks to talk with the nurse about his girlfriend who was extremely intoxicated on admission and is receiving services for detoxification. He knows that she is in the facility and asks the nurse about her condition. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. ''I can only report that the client is in satisfactory condition.''
- B. ''Let me give you the telephone number for her room.''
- C. ''I cannot acknowledge if a client is here or not.''
- D. ''I will have the nurse who is working with her call you.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must adhere to confidentiality rules and cannot confirm the presence or condition of the client. Choice A is incorrect because disclosing the client's condition breaches confidentiality. Choice B is wrong as it reveals the client's room number, which is also a breach of confidentiality. Choice D is not the best response as it involves sharing information about the client without verifying the caller's identity or relationship to the client.
3. Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client’s right leg?
- A. Dorsiflexes the right foot and left foot on command
- B. A 3 by 5 cm ecchymosis area on the right calf
- C. Right calf is 3 cm larger in circumference than the left calf
- D. Bilateral lower extremities have 3+ pitting edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant difference in calf circumference between the legs is a classic sign of DVT. This is due to the obstruction of blood flow in the deep veins of the leg, leading to swelling in the affected limb. Choices A, B, and D are not typical findings of DVT. Choice A describes a neurological response, choice B indicates a bruise on the right calf, and choice D describes pitting edema in both lower extremities, which are not specific signs of DVT.
4. When deciding whether to join a nursing strike called after collective bargaining efforts have failed, which factor is most important for the nurse to consider?
- A. Nurse Practice Act of the State
- B. The role of nurses as client advocates
- C. Standards of clinical nursing practice
- D. Personal value system
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The role of nurses as client advocates is crucial when considering the impact of a strike on patient care. Nurses have a responsibility to advocate for their patients' well-being at all times. Choices A, C, and D, although important, are not the most critical factor to consider in this situation. The Nurse Practice Act of the State is essential for guiding nursing practice, standards of clinical nursing practice ensure quality care, and personal values are important; however, the primary focus during a strike should be on the role of nurses as client advocates.
5. When assessing a mildly obese 35-year-old female client, the nurse is unable to locate the gallbladder when palpating below the liver margin at the lateral border of the rectus abdominal muscle. What is the most likely explanation for the failure to locate the gallbladder by palpation?
- A. The client is too obese.
- B. Palpating in the wrong location.
- C. The gallbladder is normal.
- D. Deeper palpation technique is needed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Obesity can make it difficult to palpate the gallbladder due to increased abdominal tissue, making it challenging to locate specific structures. Choice B is incorrect because the nurse is palpating in the correct location below the liver margin at the lateral border of the rectus abdominal muscle, where the gallbladder is typically located. Choice C is incorrect as the inability to palpate the gallbladder does not necessarily indicate abnormality; it may be due to anatomical variations or technical challenges. Choice D is incorrect as the issue lies more with the difficulty posed by excess adipose tissue rather than the need for deeper palpation techniques.
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