HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?
- A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
- B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
- C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
- D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.
2. In conducting the admission assessment for a client experiencing complications of long-term Parkinson’s disease, which question by the nurse provides the best information about disease progression?
- A. Have you experienced any stiffness in your neck or shoulder?
- B. Do you notice any jerky-type movements of your arms?
- C. Have you ever been frozen to a spot and unable to move?
- D. Do you have any problems with your hands shaking?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Asking about being 'frozen to a spot and unable to move' is the most indicative of disease progression in Parkinson’s disease. Freezing episodes are a common symptom in advanced stages, indicating a more severe progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and D focus on common symptoms of Parkinson’s disease but do not specifically address the aspect of disease progression related to freezing episodes.
3. Prior to surgery, written consent must be obtained. What is the nurse’s legal responsibility with regard to obtaining written consent?
- A. Validate the client's understanding of the surgical procedure to be conducted
- B. Explain the surgical procedure to the client and ensure the client comprehends before signing the consent form
- C. Ensure the client, not a family member, signs the surgical consent form
- D. Confirm that the surgical consent form is signed and included in the client's record
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's legal responsibility in obtaining written consent is to validate the client's understanding of the surgical procedure to be conducted. This process ensures that the client has been comprehensively informed about the procedure, including its risks, benefits, and alternatives. Choice B is incorrect because it does not emphasize the validation of client understanding, which is crucial for informed consent. Choice C is incorrect as the client, not a family member, should provide consent unless specific circumstances dictate otherwise. Choice D is incorrect because although ensuring the consent form is signed and filed is important, it does not address the primary responsibility of confirming the client's comprehension and ensuring informed consent.
4. An angry client screams at the emergency department triage nurse, “I’ve been waiting here for two hours! You and the staff are incompetent”. What is the best response for the nurse to make?
- A. The emergency department is very busy at this time.
- B. I’ll let you see the doctor next because you’ve waited so long.
- C. I’m doing the best I can for the sickest clients first.
- D. I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: The best response for the nurse is to choose option D, 'I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.' This response demonstrates empathy and validates the client's feelings, helping to defuse the situation. Choice A is not the best response as it does not directly address the client's emotions or concerns. Choice B is inappropriate as it gives preferential treatment based on the client's behavior. Choice C, while true, does not acknowledge the client's frustration or offer empathy.
5. In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, if a child has a Gower sign, what behavior should the nurse expect the child to exhibit?
- A. Stands from sitting on the floor by using hands to walk up legs
- B. Exhibits muscular atrophy of upper and lower extremities
- C. Is unable to stand because of contractures of both hips
- D. Walks with an unsteady gait and slaps feet on the floor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Gower sign is a characteristic finding in Duchenne muscular dystrophy where a child uses hands to walk up the legs when standing from a sitting position due to proximal muscle weakness. This behavior is indicative of the child trying to compensate for weak hip and thigh muscles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the specific behavior associated with the Gower sign. Muscular atrophy, contractures of both hips, and an unsteady gait with foot slapping are not directly related to the Gower sign.
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