Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes a fluid challenge of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 ml to be infused over 4 hours. The IV administration set delivers 10gtt/ml. How many gtt/minute should the nurse regulate the infusion? (Enter a numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)

• A. 42
• B.
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate: (1000 ml / 4 hours) = 250 ml/hour; (250 ml/hour) / (60 minutes/hour) = 4.17 ml/minute; (4.17 ml/minute) * (10 gtt/ml) = 41.7 gtt/minute, rounded to 42 gtt/minute. Therefore, the nurse should regulate the infusion at 42 gtt/minute to deliver the prescribed fluid challenge accurately. The other choices are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the given information.

2. A heparin infusion is prescribed for a client who weighs 220 pounds. After administering a bolus dose of 80 units/kg, the nurse calculates the infusion rate for the heparin sodium at 18 units/kg/hour. The available solution is Heparin Sodium 25,000 units in 5% Dextrose Injection 250 ml. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

• A. 18
• B. 27
• C. 36
• D. 45

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, first, find the total dose required per hour, which is the patient's weight (220 pounds) multiplied by the prescribed rate (18 units/kg/hour). This equals 3960 units/hour. Next, determine how many ml of the solution contain 25,000 units; this is 250 ml. Divide the total dose required per hour (3960 units) by the units per ml (25,000 units/250 ml) to find how many ml are needed per hour. This results in 27 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 27 ml/hour. Choice A (18) is incorrect as it does not account for the concentration of the heparin solution. Choices C (36) and D (45) are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculations based on the patient's weight and the heparin concentration in the solution.

3. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
• C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
• D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.

4. The charge nurse of a cardiac telemetry unit is assigning client care to a registered nurse (RN) and a practical nurse (PN). Which client should be assigned to the RN?

• A. One day after a permanent pacemaker insertion, a client's telemetry monitor shows a pacer rhythm.
• B. Two hours after undergoing cardioversion, a client's telemetry monitor shows a normal sinus rhythm.
• C. A client started on carvedilol the previous day for heart failure has controlled atrial fibrillation.
• D. Four hours after admission, a client with syncope shows complete heart block on the telemetry monitor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because complete heart block is a critical condition that requires immediate assessment and management by a registered nurse (RN). In complete heart block, there is a significant conduction disturbance that can lead to serious complications. The RN is better equipped to handle such complex and potentially life-threatening situations. Choices A, B, and C involve less critical conditions that can be managed by a practical nurse (PN) under the supervision of the RN. Therefore, assigning the client with complete heart block to the RN ensures prompt and appropriate intervention.

5. A high school football player comes to the clinic complaining of severe acne. The mother reports recent behavior changes, including irritability and suspiciousness of friends. The nurse’s assessment reveals an elevated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Encourage the client to see a dermatologist
• B. Refer the adolescent to a substance abuse program
• C. Suggest a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet
• D. Inquire about a possible use of anabolic steroids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the high school football player presenting with severe acne, behavior changes, elevated blood pressure, and suspicion of friends suggests the possible use of anabolic steroids. Anabolic steroid use can lead to such symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should first inquire about the possible use of anabolic steroids to address the root cause of the presenting issues. Encouraging the client to see a dermatologist (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the underlying cause is crucial first. Referring the adolescent to a substance abuse program (Choice B) is premature without confirming steroid use. Suggesting a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation where a serious issue like anabolic steroid use needs immediate attention.

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