HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. The healthcare provider prescribes a fluid challenge of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 ml to be infused over 4 hours. The IV administration set delivers 10gtt/ml. How many gtt/minute should the nurse regulate the infusion? (Enter a numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)
- A. 42
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the rate: (1000 ml / 4 hours) = 250 ml/hour; (250 ml/hour) / (60 minutes/hour) = 4.17 ml/minute; (4.17 ml/minute) * (10 gtt/ml) = 41.7 gtt/minute, rounded to 42 gtt/minute. Therefore, the nurse should regulate the infusion at 42 gtt/minute to deliver the prescribed fluid challenge accurately. The other choices are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the given information.
2. On admission to the Emergency Department, a female client who was diagnosed with bipolar disorder 3 years ago reports that this morning she took a handful of medications and left a suicide note for her family. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Which family member has the client's suicide note?
- B. When the client last took medications for bipolar disorder?
- C. What medications the client used for the suicide attempt?
- D. Whether the client has ever attempted suicide in the past?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Identifying the specific medications taken during a suicide attempt is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and assessing the potential toxicity or interactions. This information helps healthcare providers initiate the necessary interventions promptly. Option A is not as critical as knowing the medications used. Option B focuses on the timing of the last medication intake rather than the specific drugs taken for the overdose. Option D, while relevant, does not provide immediate actionable information compared to identifying the substances involved in the suicide attempt.
3. A client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. Which snack is best for the nurse to recommend to the client?
- A. Plain yogurt sweetened with raw honey
- B. Peanuts in the shell, roasted or unroasted
- C. Aged farmer’s cheese with celery sticks
- D. Baked apples topped with dried raisins
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Plain yogurt sweetened with raw honey. This option is the best choice for a client with severe neutropenia undergoing chemotherapy because it is less likely to harbor harmful bacteria, which could cause infections due to the weakened immune system. Peanuts in the shell (choice B) may carry a risk of contamination, while aged farmer's cheese with celery sticks (choice C) and baked apples topped with dried raisins (choice D) may not be as safe as plain yogurt for a client with severe neutropenia.
4. An elderly client with Alzheimer's disease is being admitted to a long-term care facility. The client’s spouse expresses concern about the level of care the client will receive. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Reassure the spouse that the client will be well cared for and provide information about the facility’s care practices.
- B. Inform the spouse that care will be adjusted based on the client’s condition and needs.
- C. Advise the spouse to visit frequently to monitor the quality of care the client receives.
- D. Suggest that the spouse speak with other family members for reassurance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this situation is to reassure the spouse that the client will be well cared for and provide information about the facility’s care practices. This response not only addresses the spouse's concerns directly but also helps in building trust and confidence in the care provided. Choice B is not ideal as it may cause unnecessary worry about the fluctuating care levels. Choice C puts the responsibility on the spouse to monitor care, which may not always be feasible or appropriate. Choice D deflects the concern to other family members instead of addressing the spouse's worries directly.
5. After receiving report, which client should the nurse assess last?
- A. An older client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing, but no drainage in the Hemovac
- B. An adult client with no postoperative drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain with the bulb compressed
- C. An older client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube
- D. An adult client with rectal tube draining clear pale red liquid drainage
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client with rectal tube drainage of clear pale red liquid is likely to be the least urgent since this is a normal post-operative finding. Clear pale red liquid drainage from a rectal tube is typically not a cause for immediate concern. Choices A, B, and C present clients with concerning signs that may require more immediate assessment and intervention. A client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing may indicate active bleeding, a client with a compressed Jackson-Pratt drain bulb may have inadequate drainage resulting in complications, and a client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube may be experiencing gastrointestinal issues that need prompt evaluation.
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