Nursing Elites

1. Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 38-week primigravida who reports contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• B. A 39-week primigravida with a biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8
• C. A 41-week multigravida who is scheduled for induction of labor today
• D. A 36-week multigravida with a prescription for serial blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.

2. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, “I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home”. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
• B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
• C. Let me contact your healthcare provider to discuss the possibility of receiving IV heparin therapy at home
• D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely.' Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents further clot formation, but it does not quickly dissolve existing clots. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the purpose of heparin and the necessity for close monitoring of bleeding risks. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the misunderstanding about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is incorrect as home administration of IV heparin therapy requires careful consideration and should not be suggested without a thorough assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's misconception about heparin's role in dissolving clots and instead focuses on the client's desire to leave the hospital.

3. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with tetanus?

• A. Open window shades to provide natural light
• B. Encourage coughing and deep breathing
• C. Minimize the amount of stimuli in the room
• D. Reposition from side to side every hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient with tetanus is to minimize the amount of stimuli in the room. Tetanus can lead to muscle spasms and heightened sensitivity to stimuli, making it essential to reduce environmental triggers for the patient's comfort and safety. Opening window shades for natural light (Choice A) may exacerbate sensitivity to light and worsen symptoms. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (Choice B) is not directly related to managing tetanus symptoms. While repositioning the patient every hour (Choice D) is important for preventing pressure ulcers, it is not the priority when managing tetanus, which requires a quiet, low-stimulus environment to minimize muscle spasms and discomfort.

4. A client morning assessment includes bounding peripheral pulses, weight gain of 2 pounds, pitting ankle edema, and moist crackles bilaterally. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Restrict daily fluid intake to 1500 ml
• B. Weight the client every morning
• C. Maintain accurate intake and output
• D. Administer prescribed diuretic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a prescribed diuretic is the most important intervention in this scenario as the client is presenting signs of fluid overload and heart failure. Diuretics help reduce fluid retention in the body, alleviating symptoms like edema and crackles. Restricting fluid intake may be necessary in some cases, but in this acute situation, addressing the immediate fluid overload with a diuretic takes precedence. Weighing the client daily and maintaining accurate intake and output are important aspects of monitoring, but they do not directly address the urgent need to manage fluid overload.

5. A nurse working on an endocrine unit should see which client first?

• A. An adolescent male with diabetes who is arguing about his insulin dose.
• B. An older client with Addison’s disease whose current blood sugar level is 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l).
• C. An adult with a blood sugar of 384mg/dl (21.31mmol/l) and urine output of 350 ml in the last hour.
• D. A client taking corticosteroids who has become disoriented in the last two hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with Addison’s disease and a blood sugar level of 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l) is experiencing hypoglycemia, which can progress to adrenal crisis. This situation requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D, although concerning, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with Addison’s disease and hypoglycemia. The adolescent arguing about his insulin dose can be addressed after stabilizing the client with Addison’s disease. The adult with high blood sugar and increased urine output may have hyperglycemia but is not in immediate danger. The client taking corticosteroids who is disoriented needs evaluation but is not in an acute life-threatening condition as the client with hypoglycemia.

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